Quiz Electronics Engineering 5 Oct 2020

Quiz Electronics Engineering
Exam: NIC
Topic: Miscellaneous
Date: 05/10/2020

Each Question carries 1 Mark
Negative Marking: 1/4
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The poles of a digital filter with linear phase response can lie
(a) only at z = 0
(b) only on the unit circle
(c) only inside the unit circle but not a t z = 0
(d) on the left side of Real(z) = 0 line.

Q2. The effect of using freewheeling diode are:
1. The load performance is improved.
2. The system efficiency is improved.
3. It prevents the output voltage from becoming negative.
Which of the following are Correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Q3. Parity bit is used in the
(a) self-checking codes
(b) self-complementing codes
(c) self-complementing non -weighted codes
(d) self-checking and correcting codes

Q4. In a pure resistive circuit, the instantaneous voltage and current are given by:
V = 250 sin 314 t volts
I = 10 sin 314 t Amp
The peak power in the circuit is ……..
(a) 1250 W
(b) 2500 W
(c) 25 W
(d) 250 W

Q5. WAN stands for __________
(a) Wide Area Network
(b) World Area Network
(c) Web Area Network
(d) Web Access Network

Q6. The quantization noise of a PCM system depends on
(a) Number of quantization levels
(b) Step-size
(c) Both step-size and number of quantization levels
(d) Sampling rate

Q7. In 8085 microprocessor, the flag register have ______ status indicator.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5

Q8. Consider the following statements:
Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they
1. pass through a medium of different permittivity.
2. pass through a small slot in a dielectric slab.
3. are incident on a perfectly conducting surface.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3

Q9. If X(z) is 1/(1-z^(-1) ) with |z| > 1, then what is the corresponding x[n]?
(a) e^(-n)
(b) e^n
(c) u(n)
(d) 𝛿(n)

Q10. “The output is ‘0’ for like inputs and ‘1’ for unlike inputs”. This statement is representative of which logic gate?
(a) OR
(b) EX-OR
(c) NAND
(d) AND

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. In a linear phase response,
⇒ y[n] = kx[n – k]
Z-transform of given function is –
⇒ Y[z] = kz^(-k)X[z]
⇒ Y[z]/(X[z]) = kz^(-k)
∴ H[z] = kz^(-k)
Hence, Transfer function has only one pole at the origin z = 0.

S2. Ans.(c)

S3. Ans (d)
Sol. A parity bit, or check bit, is a bit added to a string of binary code to ensure that the total number of 1-bits in the string is even or odd. Parity bits are used so that later at the output it can be verified that the sent data and received data are same. So, it is used for checking and correcting codes.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Given:
V = 250 sin314t volts
I = 10 sin314t Amp
Peak power = VP × IP = 250 × 10 = 2500 watt
where,
VP = Peak voltage = 250 Volts
IP = Peak current = 10 Amp.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. WAN stands for Wide Area Network.
coverage area can be a country or continent.
It may be very simple or complex depending on usage.
These can be connected through cable lines or satellites.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. We know that, Quantization noise power is
NQ = Δ^2/12
where,
Δ = (Dynamic Range)/L
Therefore, Quantization Noise depends on both step-size and no. of quantization levels.

S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. There are 5 status indicator in 8085 microprocessor. Those are Sign Flag(S), Zero Flag(Z), Auxiliary Carry Flag(AC), Parity Flag(P) and Carry Flag(CY). These registers indicates the status of the accumulator and other registers when Arithmetic and Logic operation is performed in the microprocessor. It ‘Set’ or ‘Reset’ the flag depending upon the result.

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Refraction in EM waves takes place when it passes through a medium of different permittivity.
Diffraction in EM waves takes place when it passes through a small slot in a dielectric slab.
Reflection in EM waves takes place when it is incident on a perfectly conducting surface.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. We know that Z-transform of u(n) is 1/(1-z^(-1) ) with |z| > 1.

S10. Ans(b)
Sol. In Ex-OR logic gate if both the inputs are same then output is ‘0’ otherwise output is ‘1’ if both inputs are different or unlike.

Quiz Electronics Engineering 4 Oct 2020

Quiz Electronics Engineering
Exam: NIC
Topic: Miscellaneous
Date: 04/10/2020

Each Question carries 1 Mark
Negative Marking: 1/4
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. How many machine cycle are required for 3 byte instruction when executed with “STA 2065H”?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) 3

Q2. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc. are specified in ____________ of HTTP message
(a) Entity body
(b) Request line
(c) Status line
(d) Header line

Q3. The Boolean expression (A ̅+B)(A+C ̅)(B ̅+C ̅) Simplifies to
(a) (A+B)C ̅
(b) (A+B ̅)C ̅
(c) (A ̅+B)C ̅
(d) (A ̅+B ̅)C ̅

Q4. A network contains linear resistance and ideal voltage source. If the value of all the resistors are doubled, then the voltage across each resistor is:
(a) Halved
(b) Doubled
(c) Increased by four times
(d) Not changed

Q5. When a transistor is saturated,
(a) the base potential is more than the emitter-collector potential
(b) the emitter potential is more than the base-collector potential.
(c) the collector potential is more than the base-emitter potential.
(d) the base, emitter and collector are almost at the same potential.

Q6. For a given data rate, the bandwidth β_p of the BPSK signal and the bandwidth β_0 of the OQPSK signal are related as
(a) β_p=β_0/2
(b) β_p=2β_0
(c) β_p=β_0/4
(d) β_p=β_0

Q7. Which one of the following is correct? Energy of a power signal is
(a) finite
(b) zero
(c) infinite
(d) between 1 and 2

Q8. An electric charge Q is placed in a dielectric medium. Which of the following quantities are independent of the dielectric constant ε of the medium?
(a) Electric potential V and Electric Field Intensity E.
(b) Electric Potential V and displacement Ψ.
(c) Electric Field Intensity E and Displacement density D.
(d) Displacement density D and displacement Ψ

Q9. ICMP is primarily used for __________
(a) addressing
(b) routing
(c) forwarding
(d) error and diagnostic

Q10. ALE stands for
(a) Accumulator Logic Execution
(b) Arithmetic Logic Execution
(c) Address Latch Enable
(d) All enable

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘STA 2065H’ means Store data directly from the Accumulator. The content present in the accumulator are stored in the memory location specified by 16-bit address in the operand.
bytes: 3
MC: 4
T-states: 13T

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. A Request Line specifies the Method Token like GET, POST, HEAD etc. in the HTTP request message.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. (A ̅+B)(A+C ̅)(B ̅+C ̅)
=(A ̅A+A ̅C ̅+AB+BC ̅)(B ̅+C ̅)
= (A ̅C ̅+AB+BC ̅)(B ̅+C ̅) [ ∵ A ̅A = 0]
= A ̅B ̅C ̅ + ABB ̅ + BC ̅B ̅ + A ̅C ̅C ̅+ ABC ̅ + BC ̅C ̅
=A ̅B ̅C ̅+0+0+ A ̅C ̅+ABC ̅+BC ̅
=A ̅C ̅(B ̅+1)+(A+1)BC ̅
=A ̅C ̅+BC ̅ [ ∵ A + 1 = 1 & B ̅+1=1]
=(A ̅+B)C ̅

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. On changing the values of linear resistors, there is change in the flow of current. So, both change in current and resistors cancel out each other. Hence, the voltage remains constant in case of ideal voltage source.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. In a Saturated region in transistor, both emitter-base and collector base are forward biased. So, the base potential is more than the emitter-collector potential.

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. We know that,
For BPSK,
BW =2R_b = β_p ………….(1)
For OQPSK,
BW =R_b = β_0 ………….(2)
Comparing both (1) and (2), we get
⇒ β_p=2β_0

S7. Ans.(c)

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol.
∮▒〖D.ds〗 = Q_enclosed = Ψ
D = εE
V = ∫▒E ⃗ . (dl) ⃗
where,
Ψ is displacement
From above we can see that E, V, D and Ψ are related to each other.
Hence, we can tell Displacement density D and displacement Ψ are independent of the dielectric constant ε of the medium.

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. ICMP stands for Internet Control Message Protocol. It is an internet layer protocol used by network devices like routers, to diagnose network communication issues. It is used to send error messages and operational information indicating success or failure when communicating with another IP address. It is a transport layer protocol in TCP/IP network model.

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Address Latch Enable(ALE) is used to select either address or data bus –
If ALE = 1, Address bus line is selected
otherwise for ALE = 0, Data bus line is selected.
Multiplexing and Demultiplexing of data bus line takes place.

Quiz Electronics Engineering 1 Oct 2020

Quiz Electronics Engineering
Exam: NIC
Topic: Miscellaneous
Date: 01/10/2020

Each Question carries 1 Mark
Negative Marking: 1/4
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Assertion(A): Potential everywhere on a conducting surface of infinite extent is zero.
Reason(R): Displacement density on a conducting surface is normal to the surface.
(a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is True but R is False.
(d) A is False but R is True.

Q2. In 8085 microprocessor, the value of the most significant bit of the result following the execution of any arithmetic of boolean instruction is stored in the
(a) carry status flag
(b) auxiliary carry status flag
(c) sign status flag
(d) zero status flag

Q3. In case of indirectly heated cathode, the cathode is usually in the shape of
(a) Cylinder
(b) Wire filament
(c) Metal strip
(d) Any of the above

Q4. Assertion(A): For a rational transfer function H(z) to be causal, stable and causally invertible both the zeros and the poles should lie within the unit circle in the z-plane.
Reason(R): For a rational system, ROC is bounded by poles.
(a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is True but R is False.
(d) A is False but R is True.

Q5. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.
(a) Star Topology
(b) Mesh Topology
(c) Ring Topology
(d) Bus Topology

Q6. For the network shown in the figure, the value of current in 8 Ω resistor is

(a) 1.5 A
(b) 4.8 A
(c) 2.4 A
(d) 1.2 A

Q7. The advantage of serial data transfer compared to parallel data transfer is that
(a) it requires lesser number of wires
(b) it is faster
(c) it is more accurate
(d) it is more compatible

Q8. The pre-emphasis circuit is used
(a) after demodulation
(b) before demodulation
(c) to increase or emphasize the amplitude of low frequency components of signal
(d) None of these

Q9. TRAP is
(a) Maskable, lowest priority and hardware interrupt
(b) Maskable, highest priority and software interrupt
(c) Non-maskable, highest priority and software interrupt
(d) Non-maskable, highest priority and hardware interrupt

Q10. Which of the following protocol is used to File transfer from one machine to another?
(a) FTP
(b) SMTP
(c) HTTP
(d) Email

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Conductor is an excellent equipotential surface so Potential everywhere on a conducting surface of infinite extent is zero. As EF is normal to the conducting surface so is the Displacement density D.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. The highest bit of any result after the execution of any arithmetic of boolean instruction will indicate the sign of the final result. This highest bit will act as sign status flag.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. In a directly heated cathode, the filament is the cathode and emits the electrons. In an indirectly heated cathode, the filament or heater heats a separate metal cathode electrode which emits the electrons.
The cathode is usually in the shape of a Cylinder.

S4. Ans.(b)

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Bus topology involves a single cable to which all the nodes of network devices are connected. It transmits the data from one end to another in single direction. So, whenever a node tries to send a message or data to other nodes, this data passes through all other nodes in the network through the cable. Hence, data is not secure.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. Circuit can be rearranged as,

Current flowing through 8Ω resistor is
I_1=48/(12+8)=48/20=2.4A

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. The advantage of serial data transfer compared to parallel data transfer is that it requires lesser number of wires for transferring of data.

S8. Ans(b)
Sol. Pre-emphasis is the process of artificial boosting of high frequency components of m(t) to increase corresponding Signal to Noise ratio(S/N). It is used in the transmitter section before modulation using Lead Compensator. It is like High pass Filter or differentiator. It passes high frequency but with amplification. So, Pre-emphasis circuit is used before demodulation.

S9. Ans.(d)

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol.
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is not a web browser. It is a standard network protocol used for the transfer of computer files between a client and server on a computer network i.e., from one host to another host over a TCP/IP based network such as the Internet.
Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a “client-server” protocol used in web communications for transferring files like text, graphic image, sound, video and other multimedia files etc. on the world wide web. This is the protocol over which data is sent between our browser and the website that we are connected to. The ‘S’ at the end of HTTPS tells about the secure and encrypted communications between our browser and the website. HTTP is an application protocol that runs on the top of TCP/IP suite of protocols. The HTTP runs at 8080 i.e. 80 port address. HTTP is used as a server-client mode.
SMTP(Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails (electronic mail) across IP networks.

Quiz Electronics Engineering 29 Sep 2020

Quiz Electronics Engineering
Exam: NIC
Topic: Miscellaneous
Date: 29/09/2020

Each Question carries 1 Mark
Negative Marking: 1/4
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Which of the following statements about electric field lines associated with electric charge is false?
(a) Electric field lines can be either straight or curved.
(b) Electric field lines form closed loops.
(c) Electric field lines begin on positive charges and end on negative charges.
(d) Electric field lines do not intersect.

Q2. For a message signal m(t) = cos(2πfmt) and carrier of frequency fc, which of the following represents a SSB signal?
(a) cos(2πfmt) cos(2πfct)
(b) cos(2πfct)
(c) [1 + cos(2πfmt) cos(2πfct)]
(d) cos[2π(fc + fm)t]

Q3. Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?
(a) SMTP
(b) HTTP
(c) FTP
(d) SIP

Q4. A circuit component that opposes the change in circuit voltage is
(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
(d) All the above

Q5. The abbreviation TTL stands for
(a) Transistor-transformer logic
(b) Transistor-transistor logic
(c) Transmitter transistor load
(d) Tuned transistor loop

Q6. 8085 has ___ software restarts and ___ hardware restarts.
(a) 10, 5
(b) 6, 6
(c) 7, 5
(d) 8, 4

Q7. A transistor is said to be in quiescent state when
(a) no signal is applied to the input
(b) no currents are flowing
(c) it is unbiased
(d) emitter junction and collector-junction biases are equal

Q8. The Fourier transform of u(t) is
(a) 1/jω
(b) jω
(c) π𝛿(ω) + 1/jω
(d) 1/(1+jω)

Q9. Which of the following expressions is true for apparent power in an A.C. circuit?
(a) VI cos ∅
(b) V_(r.m.s.) ×I_(r.m.s.)
(c) V_av.×I_av.
(d) V_peak×I_peak

Q10. For electromagnetic wave propagation in free space , the free space is defined as
(a) σ = 0, ε = 1, µ ≠ 1, p ⃗ ≠ 0, j ⃗ = 0
(b) σ = 0, ε = 1, µ = 1, p ⃗ = 0, j ⃗ = 0
(c) σ ≠ 0, ε > 1, µ < 1, p ⃗ ≠ 0, j ⃗ = 0
(d) σ = 0, ε = 1, µ = 1, p ⃗ ≠ 0, j ⃗ ≠ 0

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Electric Field lines never form closed loop. Either they converge at the negative charge or direct towards infinity.

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. In case of SSB-SC signal, either there is USB or LSB. Both cannot be present simultaneously.
Here, cos[2π(fc + fm)t] represents the Upper Side Band of either AM or SSB-SC signal.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Email uses various protocols like SMTP, IMAP and POP. The most prominent one used in application layer is Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

S4. Ans.(c)

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. TTL stands for Transistor-Transistor Logic. TTL is a logic family built from Bipolar Junction Transistors. TTL circuit design offered higher speed or lower power dissipation to allow design optimization. It employs a transistor with multiple emitters having more than one input.

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Software and Hardware Interrupts restart the operation in the 8085 microprocessor. There are 4 Hardware interrupt(TRAP, RST 5.5, RST 6.5, RST 7.5) and 8 Software Interrupts(RST_0 to RST_7). Hence, there are 4 hardware restarts and 8 software restarts.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. Quiescent state means “at rest”. At this state power supply is ON and stable and defined by the voltage and current present in the circuit. It shows the zero signal state of the transistors. This state describes the behavior of the transistor. The quiescent point in transistor is related to direct biasing of current to base.

S8. Ans.(c)

S9. Ans (b)
Sol. In an AC circuit, the product of the r.m.s voltage and the r.m.s current is called Apparent Power.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. In free space,
σ = 0,
ε = 1,
µ = 1,
Poynting vector, p ⃗ ≠ 0,
Current Density, j ⃗ ≠ 0

Quiz Electronics Engineering 28 Sep 2020

Quiz Electronics Engineering
Exam: NIC
Topic: Miscellaneous
Date: 28/09/2020

Each Question carries 1 Mark
Negative Marking: 1/4
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The line code that has zero dc component for pulse transmission of random binary data is
(a) non-return to zero (NRZ)
(b) return to zero (RN)
(c) alternate mark inversion (AM)
(d) none of the above

Q2. Which one of the statements is correct?
On a conducting surface boundary, electric field lines are
(a) always tangential
(b) always normal
(c) neither tangential nor normal
(d) at an angle depending on the field intensity

Q3. In a full wave rectifier circuit using centre tapped transformer, the peak voltage across half of the secondary winding is 30 V. Then PIV is:
(a) 30 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 15 V
(d) 60 V

Q4. When bundle conductor are used in place of single conductance the effective inductance and capacitance will respectively
(a) increase and decrease
(b) decrease and increase
(c) decrease and remain unaffected
(d) remain unaffected and increase

Q5. Identify the incorrect statement regarding FTP.
(a) FTP sends its control information in-band
(b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
(c) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
(d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection

Q6. How many bits are required to store one BCD digit?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q7. A real signal x(f) has fourier transform X(f). Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both magnitude and phase of X(f) have even symmetry
(b) Magnitude of X(f) has odd symmetry while phase of X(f) has even symmetry
(c) Magnitude of X(f) has even symmetry while phase of X(f) has odd symmetry
(d) Both magnitude and phase of X(f) have odd symmetry

Q8. A coil of resistance of 5 Ω and inductance 0.4 H is connected to a 50 V d.c. supply. The energy stored in the field is
(a) 20 Joules
(b) 10 Joules
(c) 40 Joules
(d) 80 Joules

Q9. The advantage of write(copy) back data cache organization is
(a) write allocate on write miss
(b) less memory bandwidth requirement
(c) Main memory consistency
(d) higher capacity

Q10. In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.
(a) line switching
(b) circuit switching
(c) packet switching
(d) frequency switching

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. There are two types coding:-
Source coding techniques are used in PCM and DM for converting analog signal to digital i.e., train of binary digits.
Line coding converts stream of binary digits into a formal code. It is used for data transmission of a digital signal over a transmission line. This process is chosen to avoid overlap and distortion of signal such as Inter-Symbol Interference.
AMI(Alternate Mark Inversion) is a synchronous clock encoding technique. It uses bipolar pulses to represent logical 1 values and a logical 0 is represented by no symbol. So, It is a three level system. This code has zero dc component for pulse transmission of random binary data.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. On a conducting surface boundary, the tangential component of the Electric field is zero. It is absorbed by the conducting surface. Only normal component of the Electric Field exist.

S3. Ans. (d)
Sol. In full wave circuit using centre tapped transformer PIV = 2V_m.
So, PIV = 2 × 30 = 60 V

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Bundled conductor are used for reducing corona loss and radio interference because it reduces voltage gradient. Hence, bundled conductors have higher capacitance and lower value of inductive reactance.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. FTP(File Transfer Protocol) is an application layer protocol which moves files between local and remote file systems from one system to another over the internet. It runs on the top of TCP. It uses two TCP connections i.e. data and control connections in parallel. Control Connection at port 21 and Data connection at port 20. FTP is out-of-band. Out-of-band means data that is transferred through a stream independent from the main in-band data stream.

S6. Ans(d)
Sol. BCD (Binary coded Decimal) Number is from 0 to 9, which requires four bits to store. As the maximum number of the system (15) can best represented by 4 bits. It is also called as 8421 code to represent maximum number 15.

S7. Ans.(c)

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Given:
R = 5 Ω
L = 0.4 H
V_dc = 50 V
Energy stored in a field is
E = 1/2 LI^2
Current in the coil is
⇒ I = V_dc/R
⇒ I = 50/5
⇒ I = 10 A
Now,
E = 1/2(0.4)〖(10)〗^2
So, E = 20 Joules

S9. Ans.(b)

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Packet switching is a method of transmitting data in which long messages are sub-divided into packets. In this resources are not reserved but are allocated on demand. It follows first-come first serve principle for data.

Quiz Electronics Engineering 11 Sep 2020

Quiz Electronics Engineering
Exam: NIC
Topic: Miscellaneous
Date: 11/09/2020

Each Question carries 1 Mark
Negative Marking: 1/4
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. A charge ‘Q’ is divided between two point charges. What should be the values of this charge on the objects so that the force between them is maximum?
(a) Q/3
(b) 2Q
(c) (Q -2)
(d) Q/2

Q2. The correct sequence of subsystems in an FM receiver is
(a) mixer, RF amplifier, limiter, IF amplifier, discriminator, audio amplifier
(b) RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, limiter, discriminator, audio amplifier
(c) RF amplifier, mixer, limiter, discriminator, IF amplifier, audio amplifier
(d) mixer, IF amplifier, limiter, audio amplifier, discriminator

Q3. Conductors have
(a) positive temperature coefficient of resistance
(b) Negative temperature coefficient of resistance
(c) low temperature coefficient of resistance
(d) none of these

Q4. What addressing mode is used in the instruction RET?
(a) Direct
(b) Register-Indirect
(c) Immediate
(d) Implicit

Q5. DHCP provides __________ to the client.
(a) URL
(b) MAC address
(c) IP address
(d) None of the above

Q6. Match List-I(Laws) with List-II(Applications) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Ampere’s law 1. To find force on a charge.
B. Biot’s Law 2. To find force due to a current element.
C. Coulomb’s Law 3. To find electric flux density at a point.
D. Gauss’s Law 4. To find magnetic flux density at a point.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 2 1 3

Q7. Which of the following transistor is affected by static electricity?
(a) MOSFET
(b) JFET
(c) UJT
(d) NPN transistor

Q8. IPsec is designed to provide security at the _________
(a) Transport layer
(b) Application layer
(c) Network layer
(d) Session layer

Q9. The number of comparator required for flash type A/D converter
(a) Triples for each added bit
(b) Reduce by half for each added bit
(c) Double for each added bit
(d) Doubles exponentially for each added bit

Q10. Discrete-time version of unit impulse is defined as ______
(a) 𝛿(n) = {█(1; n=0@0 ; n≠0)┤
(b) 𝛿(n) = 1 for all value of n
(c) (n) = {█(A; n=0@0 ; n≠0)┤
(d) 𝛿(n) = {█(1; n≠0@0 ; n=0)┤

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. From coulomb’s Law, we get
F = (KQ_1 Q_2)/r^2
The force will be maximum when both the charges are equally divided so that their product becomes maximum.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Block diagram of FM Receiver:-

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Conductors have positive temperature coefficient of resistance because resistance increases with the increase in temperature in conductor.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘RET’ means Return from subroutine unconditionally. The execution of instruction is transferred from subroutine part to the next step from where subroutine was called. This is done with the help of POP opcode so that program counter can be loaded with that address.
It is in Register-Indirect addressing mode because the location of the register where operand is present is mentioned with the help of address.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network management protocol used to automate the process of configuring devices on IP networks. DHCP server dynamically assigns an IP address and other network configuration parameters to each device on the network. The hosts know about the change dynamically and update their info themselves. It is used for both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing.

S6. Ans.(d)

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. All MOSFET is sensitive to static electricity. If static electricity is applied to the gate at the time of mounting the board, the gate oxide layer may be destroyed.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. IPsec(Internet Protocol Security) is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data integrity and confidentiality between two machines in an IP network. In the TCP/IP model, it provides security at the IP layer i.e. the Network Access Layer.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. The minimum number of comparators needed for n-bit conversion = 2^n-1
So, We can say that the number of comparator required almost doubles for each added bit. For example: – A 2 -bit ADC requires three comparators, 3 -bit ADC needs seven comparators and so on.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. Discrete Unit Impulse function is an elementary signal with value 1 at n = 0 only.

Quiz Electronics Engineering 27 July 2020

Quiz Electronics Engineering
Exam: NIC
Topic: Miscellaneous
Date: 27/07/2020

Each Question carries 1 Mark
Negative Marking: 1/4
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Which of the following does not cause permanent damage to an SCR?
(a) High current
(b) High rate of rise of voltage
(c) High temperature rise
(d) High rate of rise of current

Q2. The VSWR of a transmission line is
(a) directly proportional to load impedance and inversely to characteristic impedance
(b) directly proportional to characteristic impedance and inversely to load impedance
(c) proportional to load and characteristic impedances
(d) directly to voltage minimum and inversely to voltage maximum

Q3. In a PCM system each quantization level is encoded into 8 bits. The signal to quantization noise ratio is equal to
(a) 24 dB
(b) 50 dB
(c) 64 dB
(d) 256 dB

Q4. In Boolean algebra, A + A + A + ….. + A is the same as
(a) zero
(b) A
(c) n A
(d) A^n

Q5. Transient current in a circuit results from
(a) Voltage applied to the circuit
(b) Impedance of the circuit
(c) Resistance of the circuit
(d) Changes in the stored energy in inductors and capacitors

Q6. BCD numbers are obtained by
(a) converting binary to decimal
(b) each decimal digit is represented by a four-bit binary
(c) converting decimal number to binary
(d) converting decimal to octal numbers

Q7. X-band frequencies are in which one of the following ranges?
(a) 3.5 to 5.5 GHz
(b) 5.5 to 8.0 GHz
(c) 8.0 to 12.0 GHz
(d) 12.4 to 16.4 GHz

Q8. A read bit can be read
(a) by CPU and written by the peripheral
(b) and written by CPU
(c) and written by peripheral
(d) by peripheral and written by CPU

Q9. Which one of the following is not a LED material?
(a) GaAs
(b) GaP
(c) SiO2
(d) SiC

Q10. Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase when the phase angle between them is
(a) 360°
(b) 180°
(c) 90°
(d) 0°

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. If there is higher rate of increase in applied voltage then the SCR is not damaged permanently. SCR is triggered ON due to large applied voltage so it is not damaged.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) is a measure of impedance matching of loads to the characteristic impedance of a transmission line or waveguide. SWR in terms of maximum and minimum AC voltage is called VSWR. VSWR is also the ratio of maximum to minimum voltages.

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. Given:
Number of bits(n) = 8

We know that in PCM,
S/N_q (dB)=(1.8 + 6n)dB where, n is number of bits

Now, S/N_q =( 1.8+6×8 )
= 49.8 dB ≈ 50 dB

Therefore, The signal to quantization noise ratio is equal to 50 dB.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. We know, A + A = A

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Transient occurs due to the sudden release of stored energy either in inductor or capacitor. Transient may be either due to both high Voltage or high Current.

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. In Binary Coded Decimal (BCD) each decimal digit is represented by a 4-bit binary number because BCD Number is from 0 to 9, which requires four bits to store. It is also called as 8421 code.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. Table of frequency band and their respective frequencies range –
Frequency Band Frequency range(in GHz)
HF 0.003 – 0.030
VHF 0.030 – 0.300
UHF 0.300 – 1.000
L band 1 – 2
S band 2 – 4
C band 4 – 8
X band 8 – 12
Ku band 12 – 18
K band 18 – 27
Ka band 27 – 40
Millimeter 40 – 300
Submillimeter > 300

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. A read bit is read by CPU and this process is done in the CPU and written by peripheral like Monitor Screen.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. SiO2 is an insulating material used in MOSFET for preventing current loss though gate.

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. When the phase difference between two waves is 1800 (it may be = + 1800 or – 1800), then the waves are said to be in opposite phase.

Quiz: Civil Engineering 17 july 2020

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Miscellaneous

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The maximum depth of neutral axis for a beam with Fe 415 bars in limit state method of design is:
(a) 0.46 d
(b) 0.48 d
(c) 0.50 d
(d) 0.53 d

Q2. Minimum diameter of a longitudinal reinforcement in a RCC column as per IS codal provisions shall be:
(a) 16 mm
(b) 12 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 8 mm

Q3. Double mass curve technique is followed to
(a) check the consistency of rain gauge record
(b) find the average rainfall over a number of year
(c) find the number of rain gauge required
(d) estimate the missing precipitation values

Q4. The weight of 10 mm diameter mild steel rod per meter length is equal to________:
(a) 0.22 kg
(b) 0.32 kg
(c) 0.42 kg
(d) 0.62 kg

Q5. A substance bar can be used to determine :
(a) Horizontal angles
(b) Horizontal distances
(c) Vertical angles
(d) Horizontal and vertical distances

Q6. The Bangalore method of composting of solid waste is:
(a) Facultative
(b) anaerobic and aerobic
(c) aerobic
(d) anaerobic

Q7. Which of the following represents the approximate overflow rate (Inters/hours/m²) for the plain sedimentation tank?
(a) 500 – 750
(b) 800 – 1200
(c) 1200 – 1520
(d) 1650 – 2500

Q8. You are asked to construct a massive concrete dam. The type of cement you will use is:
(a) ordinary Portland cement
(b) Rapid hardening Portland cement
(c) Low heat cement
(d)Blast furnace slag cement

Q9. Most important constituents of cement are
(a) C_3 A and C_2 S
(b) C_3 S and C_3 A
(c) C_3 S and C_2 S
(d) C_3 A and C_4 AF

Q10. Number of links in a 30 m metric chain is _________
(a) 100
(b) 150
(c) 180
(d) 200

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol.

Grade of steel maximum depth of N.A.
Fe-250 0.53d
Fe-415 0.48d
Fe-500 0.46d

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. In column minimum diameter for longitudinal reinforcement is 12mm. for Transverse reinforcement minimum diameter is 6 mm.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Double mass curve technique is followed to check the consistency of rain gauge record. It is used to correct the inconsistency of precipitation records.

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Quantity of steel (in kg.) per meter length is given by = M/L=d^2/162=0.00618d^2
Where d = diameter of steel rod (in mm.)
L = length (in m.)
M = Quantity of steel (in kg.)
Now = M/L=0.00618d^2
= 0.00618×(10)²
= 0.618 ≃ 0.62 kg

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. substance bar is used to measure 90° Angle in any point & drawing perpendicular by exterior point & also used to measure horizontal distance.

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Bangalore method of composting of solid waste is anaerobic.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. surface overflow rate for plain sedimentation tank is 12,000 to 18,000 l/day/m² or 500 to 750 l/hours/m² while surface overflow rate for sedimentation with coagulation is 24,000 to 30,000 l/day/m² or 1000 to 1250 l/hours/m².

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Low heat cement is preferred to construct a massive concrete dam because it has less heat of hydration.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Most important constituents of cement are C_3 S and C_3 A.

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol.

Chain Link’s
a) Metric chain

(i) 20 m

(ii) 30 m

 

100 link

150 link

b) Gunter’s chain

66ft

 

100 link

c) Engineer’s Chain

100 ft

 

100 link

d) Revenue Chain

33ft

 

16 link

Quiz: Mechanical Engineering 9th July 2020

Quiz: Mechanical Engineering
Exam: UPPSC AE
Topic: Miscellaneous

Each question carries 3 mark.
Negative marking: 1 mark
Time: 10 Minute

Q1. In regarding nucleate boiling ___________
(a) The temperature of the surface is greater than the saturation temperature of the liquid
(b) Bubbles are created by expansion of entrapped gas or vapour at small cavities in the surface
(c) The temperature is greater than that of film boiling
(d) All options are correct

Q2. Calculate the power (in kW) required by the engine of a car travelling at the constant speed of 50 m/s. If the car has to resist a wind drag F_D=20V(in N), where V is the velocity of the car.
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 75

Q3. Water, by evaporating cooling, can be theoretically be cooled down to
(a) Atmospheric temperature
(b) Air dry bulb temperature
(c) Air wet bulb temperature
(d) Air dew point temperature

Q4. What is the location of frictional force when the intensity of pressure is uniform in a flat pivot bearing having radius r?
(a) r
(b) r/2
(c) 2r/3
(d) r/3

Q5. When the depth of water in an open channel is less than the critical depth, then flow is said to be
(a) critical
(b) turbulent
(c) torrential
(d) tranquil

Q6. In order that no shock wave develops when flow is taking place through a converging-diverging tube, Mach number at exit should be
(a) equal to 1
(b) greater than 1
(c) less than 1
(d) none of these

Q7. Which of the following is the correct method for the conversion of spring-controlled governor from unstable to stable?
(a) Increasing the ball weight
(b) Decreasing the spring stiffness
(c) Decreasing the ball weight
(d) Increasing the spring stiffness

Q8. Which one of the following assumptions in the theory of pure torsion is false?
(a) The angle of twist is uniform along the length
(b) The shaft is of uniform circular section throughout
(c) Cross-section plane before torsion remains plane after torsion
(d) All radii get twisted due to torsion

Q9. Filling or decking in a cooling tower increases the rate of heat transfer by providing
(a) increased flow of water
(b) increased flow of air
(c) increased flow of water and air
(d) a large amount of wetted surface

Q10. Two-stroke engines are used more frequently in two wheelers due to which of the following reasons?
(a) exhaust is less
(b) higher thermal efficiency
(c) higher power to weight ratio
(d) less friction

Solutions

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Nucleate boiling is a type of boiling that takes place when the surface temperature is hotter than the saturated fluid temperature by a certain amount but where the heat flux is below the critical heat flux.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. We know that
Power required = F_D×V
= 20×V×V
= 20×50^2
= 50 kW

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. By evaporating cooling, air can be cooled down to its wet bulb temperature. Evaporative cooling is a process that uses the effect of evaporation as a natural heat sink. Sensible heat from the air is absorbed to be used as latent heat necessary to evaporate water.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. The frictional force acts at 2r/3 distance from the center when intensity of pressure is given uniform.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. When the depth of water in an open channel is less than the critical depth, then flow is said to be torrential.

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. Mach number at exit should be greater than 1 for no shock wave generation when flow is taking place through a converging-diverging tube.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. A spring-controlled governor is said to be stable if the radius of the balls increases with increase in the speed of the governor and vice versa. A spring-controlled governor can be made stable by decreasing the spring stiffness.

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Following assumptions are made in the theory of pure torsion:
The material of shaft is uniform throughout
The shaft is of uniform circular cross-section throughout its length
Cross section remains plane before and after torsion.
All radii get twisted due to torsion

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. Filling or decking in a cooling tower increases the rate of heat transfer by providing increased wetted area.

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Two-stroke engines are used more frequently in two wheelers due to higher power to weight ratio of these engines.

Quiz: Civil Engineering 4 july 2020

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Miscellaneous

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Stress-strain curve of concrete is
(a) a perfect straight line upto failure
(b) straight line upto 0.002% strain value and the parabolic upto failure
(c) hyperbolic upto 0.002% strain value and a straight line upto failure
(d) parabolic upto 0.002% strain value and a straight line upto failure

Q2. The moisture content of the soil, after free drainage has removed most of the gravity water, is called
(a) Available moisture
(b) Saturation capacity
(c) Field capacity
(d) Gravity water

Q3. While estimating for plastering, usually no deduction is made for –
(a) Ends of beams
(b) Small opening upto 0.5 sq. m.
(c) End of rafters
(d) All the above

Q4. Maximum shear stress produced on a solid circular shaft under torque is:
(a) 16T/(πD^4 )
(b) 16T/(πD^3 )
(c) 32T/(πD^4 )
(d) 32T/(πD^3 )

Q5. The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of fields, is called :
(a) City surveying
(b) Location surveying
(c) Cadastral surveying
(d) Topographical surveying

Q6. A self-cleansing velocity may be defined as that velocity at which the solid particles will:
(a) Settle at the bottom of the sewer
(b) Remain in suspension, without settling at the bottom of the sewer
(c) Wash out from the sewer
(d) Cause damage to the sewer

Q7. The ratio of different ingredients (cement sand, aggregate) in concrete mix of grade M20, is
(a) 1:1:2
(b) 1:11/2 :2
(c) 1: 2: 4
(d) 1: 3 : 6

Q8. The term soil mechanics was coined by
(a) Rankine
(b) Newton
(c) Terzaghi
(d) Newmark

Q9. Fish plate is in contact with rail at
(a) Web of rail
(b) Fishing plane
(c) Head of rail
(d) Foot of rail

Q10. Minimum pitch of rivets shall not be less than
(a) 1.5 d
(b) 2.0 d
(c) 2.5 d
(d) 3.0 d

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. According to IS. Code stress strain curve is parabola up to 0.002 then straight line
Up to failure.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. The moisture content of the soil, after free drainage has removed most of the gravity water, is called field capacity.

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Plastering is measured in terms of m². If,
(a) opening area < 0.5 m² (No deduction is applied)
(b) opening area is between 0.5 m² – 3m², then (single side deduction is applied)
(c) opening area > 3 m², then (double side deduction is applied)

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. T/J=τ_max/R
τ_max=JR/J
= (T×D/2)/(πD^4/32)
τ_max=16T/πD³

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. cadastral surveying is used to determine additional details such as boundaries of fields & also used for calculating the Area of Land.

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. A self-cleansing velocity may be defined as that velocity at which the solid particles will remain in suspension, without settling at the bottom of the sewer.

S7. Ans.(b)

Sol. Nominal mix for different grade of concrete as below.

Concrete Grade Mix ratio
M 7.5 1:4:8
M 10 1:3:6
M 15 1:2:4
M 20 1:1.5:3
M 25 1:1:2

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Karl terzaghi is father of soil mechanics. His first book on soil mechanics is erbdomechanics published in 1925.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. fish plate is in contact with rail at fishing plane.

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. → minimum pitch of rivet = 2.5d
→ maximum pitch for compression = (12t,200)_minimum
→ maximum pitch for tension = (16t,200)_minimum

Quiz: Civil Engineering 30 june 2020

Quiz: Civil Engineering

Exam: UPSSSC-JE

Topic: Miscellaneous

 

Each question carries 1 mark

Negative marking: 1/4 mark

Time: 10 Minutes

 

Q1. M-50 is considered as _________ type of concrete.

(a) Ordinary

(b) Standard

(c) High strength

(d) All of the above

 

Q2. One cubic meter of mild steel weights about?

(a) 12560 kg

(b) 3625 kg

(c) 1000 kg

(d) 7850 kg

 

Q3. According to WHO, what is the permissible chloride content in drinking water?

(a) 0.001 mg/l

(b) 1 mg/l

(c) 250 mg/l

(d) 350 mg/l

 

Q4. Which of the following is not a form of precipitation?

(a) Snow

(b) Rain

(c) Hail

(d) Smog

 

Q5. The distance between the midpoint of the long chord to the midpoint of curve is known as ___________.

(a) cub chord

(b) normal

(c) mid ordinate

(d) long chord

 

Q6. Spacing between lateral ties of RCC columns should not exceed:

(a) 150 mm

(b) 250 mm

(c) 300 mm

(d) 500 mm

 

Q7. Consistency limit measured by the instrument, is known as:

(a) Plate load test

(b) Oedometer

(c) Casagrande’s apparatus

(d) Hydrometer

 

Q8. Which one of the following assumptions of Bernoulli’s theorem is not correct?

(a) Flow should not be unsteady

(b) Flow should be continuous

(c) The fluid should be compressible

(d) Flow should be frictionless

 

Q9. The allowable stress in a long column can be increased by increasing the

(a) radius of gyration

(b) eccentricity

(c) slenderness ration

(d) length of the column

 

Q10. The penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its

(a) Grade

(b) Ductility

(c) Viscosity

(d) None of these

 

SOLUTION

 

S1. Ans.(b)

Sol.

Concrete Grade Type of concrete
M10 – M20 Ordinary
M25 – M55 Standard
M60 – M80 High strength

 

S2. Ans.(d)

Sol. Density of mild steel is about 7850 kg/m³. hence One cubic meter of mild steel weights about 7850 kg.

 

S3. Ans.(c)

Sol. according to WHO, the permissible limit of chloride content in drinking water is 250 mg/l.

 

S4. Ans.(d)

Sol. There are some forms of precipitation-

  • Rainfall
  • Drizzle
  • Glaze
  • Snow
  • Sleet
  • Hails

 

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Distance between mid point of curve (C) to mid point of long chord (D) is known as mid ordinate (versed sine) of the Curve.
▭(CD=R-R cos⁡〖∆/2 〗 )

 

S6. Ans.(c)

Sol. Spacing between lateral ties

Maximum spacing should not be greater than.

  • 16×minimum diameter of bar
  • Least lateral dimension
  • 300 mm.

 

S7. Ans.(c)

Sol. Consistency limit is measured by Casagrande’s apparatus.

 

S8. Ans.(c)

Sol. There are some assumptions for Bernoulli’s theorem

(1)  The flow is steady.

(2)  The flow is incompressible.

(3)  The flow is frictionless

(4)  The flow continuous

(5)  The flow should be irrotational or rotational along streamline.

 

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. The allowable stress in a long column can be increased by increasing it’s radius of gyration and radius of gyration depends on moment of inertia.
R=√(I/A)
R- radius of gyration
I- Moment of Inertia

 

S10. Ans.(a)

Sol. The penetration test on bitumen is used for determining the Grade of bitumen.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Quiz Electronics Engineering 12 June 2020

Quiz Electronics Engineering
Exam: NIC
Topic: Miscellaneous
Date: 12/06/2020

Each Question carries 1 Mark
Negative Marking: 1/4
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. How many RAM chips of size (256 K × 1 bit) are required to build 1 MB memory?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 24
(d) 32
L1 Difficulty 2
QTags Digital Electronics
QCreator Vikram Kumar

Q2. A hash-function f defined as f(key) = key mod 7, with linear probing, insert the keys 37, 38, 72, 48, 98, 11, 56, into a table indexed from 11 will be stored in the location
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
L1 Difficulty 3
QTags Computer
QCreator Vikram Kumar

Q3. The CFG s ⟶ as | bs | a | b is equivalent to regular expression
(a) (a + b)
(b) (a + b)(a + b)*
(c) (a + b)(a + b)
(d) All of these
L1 Difficulty 2
QTags Compiler Design
QCreator Vikram Kumar

Q4. In a Single Pass Assembler, most of the forward references can be avoided by putting the restriction
(a) on the number of strings/lifereacts
(b) that the data segment must be defined after the code segment
(c) on unconditional rump
(d) that the data segment be defined before the code segment
L1 Difficulty 3
QTags Compiler Design
QCreator Vikram Kumar

Q5. The file structure that redefines its first record at a base of zero uses the term
(a) relative organization
(b) key fielding
(c) dynamic reallocation
(d) All of these
L1 Difficulty 3
QTags Data Structure
QCreator Vikram Kumar

Q6. For a database relation R(a, b, c, d), where the domains of a, b, c, d include only atomic values, only the functional dependencies and those that can be inferred from them hold:
a ⟶ c ; b ⟶ d ; the relation is in
(a) first normal form but not in second normal form
(b) second normal form but not in third normal form
(c) third normal form
(d) None of the above
L1 Difficulty 3
QTags DBMS
QCreator Vikram Kumar

Q7. The extent to which the software can control to operate correctly despite the introduction of invalid input is called as
(a) reliability
(b) robustness
(c) fault tolerance
(d) portability
L1 Difficulty 3
QTags Software Engineering
QCreator Vikram Kumar

Q8. A packet-switching network
(a) is free
(b) can reduce the cost of using an information utility
(c) allows communication channel to be shared among more than one user
(d) both (b) and (c)
L1 Difficulty 3
QTags Networking
QCreator Vikram Kumar

Q9. When signed numbers are used in binary arithmetic, then which of the following notations would have unique representation for zero?
(a) Sign-magnitude
(b) 1’s complement
(c) 2’s complement
(d) 9,s complement
L1 Difficulty 3
QTags Computer Organization & Microprocessor
QCreator Vikram Kumar

Q10. The data-bus width of a 2048 x 8 bits is
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 16
L1 Difficulty 1
QTags Digital Electronics
QCreator Vikram Kumar

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Memory capacity = 1 MB = 2^20 bytes = 2^20 × 8 bits = 2^23 bits
RAM chip size = 256 K × 1 bit = 2^18 bits
Now, Number of RAM chips are = 2^23/2^18 = 2^5 = 32

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. Hash function = f(key) = key mod 7
Insertion order is 37, 38, 72, 48, 98, 11, 56
Step 1: Insert 37 ⇒ 37 mod 7 = 2. It occupies 2nd location.
Step 2: Insert 38 ⇒ 38 mod 7 = 3. It occupies 3rd location.
Step 3: Insert 72 ⇒ 72 mod 7 = 2, but 2nd location already occupied, so after linear probing it would occupy 4th location.
Step 4: Insert 48 ⇒ 48 mod 7 = 6. It occupies 6th location.
Step 5: Insert 98 ⇒ 98 mod 7 = 0. It occupies 0th location.
Step 6: Insert 11 ⇒ 11 mod 7 = 4, but 4th location already occupied, after linear probing it would get into 5th location.

S3. Ans.(b)

(a + b)(a + b)*

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. A single pass assembler scans the program only once and creates the equivalent machine codes. Data segment must be defined before the code segment to avoid forward references.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. A relative file is a file in which each record is identified by its ordinal position in the file (record 1, record 2 and so on). This means that records can be accessed randomly as well as sequentially. If defined Access Mode is Dynamic then file can be accessed both sequentially and randomly.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. If every attribute in a relation is single valued attribute then it is in 1NF.
candidate key of above relation is ab.
Since all a, b, c, d are single valued attribute so the relation is in 1 NF.
a ⟶ c and b ⟶ d are partially dependent so they are not in 2 NF.
Therefore, the relation is in first normal form but not in second normal form.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Robustness is the ability of a computer system to withstand errors during execution and invalid input. It focuses on handling unexpected termination and unexpected actions.

S8. Ans.(d)

-can reduce the cost of using an information utility
-allows communication channel to be shared among more than one user

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. In 1’s complement, 9’s complement and sign-magnitude zero is represented in more than one notation but in 2’s complement it is represented in only 1 way.

S10. Ans.(a)

8

Quiz: Civil Engineering 12 june 2020

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: Telangana PSCM
Topic: Building, Material & Construction

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: No negative marking
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. For manufacturing coloured glass, the colouring pigments are added in the glass at the stage of
(a) Raw material mixing
(b) Fusion
(c) Melting
(d) Finishing

Q2. Most commonly used ingredients in cement manufacturing is:
(a) Graphite
(b) Lime stone
(c) Sand stone
(d) Slate

Q3. The most commonly used base for timber painting is
(a) Red lead
(b) Zinc white
(c) White lead
(d) Titanium white

Q4. In which of the following direction the strength of timber is maximum?
(a) Parallel to grains
(b) 45° to grains
(c) Perpendicular to grains
(d) Same in all directions

Q5. Which of the following quality of timber can improved using Abel’s process?
(a) Durability
(b) Fire Resistance
(c) chemical resistance
(d) Strength

Q6. The small area on painted surface enclosed by hair line cracks are known as:
(a) Blistering
(b) Crazing
(c) Wrinkling
(d) Chalking

Q7. Water cement ratio is usually expressed in:
(a) Litres of water required per bag of cement
(b) Litres of water required per kg of cement
(c) m³ of water required per bag of cement
(d) m³ of water required per kg of cement

Q8. If the rocks are formed due to alteration of original structure under heat and excessive pressure, then they are known as _________.
(a) Igneous
(b) Sedimentary
(c) Volcanic
(d) Metamorphic

Q9. The operation of converting limestone into quicklime by heating it to temperature upto 900°C and releasing carbon dioxide is known as:
(a) Charging
(b) Calcination
(c) Drawing
(d) Hydrating

Q10. Tensile strength of concrete is measured by
(a) direct tension test in the universal testing machine
(b) applying compressive load on the diameter of cylinder
(c) applying third point loading on a prism.
(d) applying tensile load along the diameter of cylinder.

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Colour pigment is added in the manufacturing of glass at the stage of fusion.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. lime is most important ingredient in manufacturing of cement. It is about 62-65% in cement. Lime is act as binding material in cement.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. White lead is used as base for timber painting.

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. if applied load is parallel to grains then the strength of timber is maximum.

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. Timber surface is coated with solution of sodium silicate (Na_2 SiO_3 ) which increase the resistance against fire. This process is called sir Abel’s process.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. Wrinkling → These are the hair line cracks on small area of painted surface.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. Water Cement ratio is usually expressed in liters of water required per bag of cement.
▭(water-cement ratio= (weight of water)/(weight of cement))

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. Metamorphic rocks are formed by the change in character of the original rocks when they are subjected to great heat and pressure.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Calcination is a process of heating the limestone up to redness.
CaCO_3—– Calcination/(900°C)—– CaO + CO_2
S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. Tensile strength of concrete is measured by direct tension test in the universal testing machine.

Quiz: Electrical Engineering 11 June 2020

Quiz: Electrical Engineering

Exam: UPSSSC JE

Topic: Miscellaneous

 

Each question carries 1 mark.

Negative marking: 1/4 mark

Time: 10 Minute

 

Q1. EMF of a thermo couple depends upon the

(a) nature of material of metal

(b) difference of temperature of two junctions

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of the above

 

 

Q2. If the diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping the terminal voltage same then the drift velocity will

(a) become twice

(b) become half

(c) become four time

(d) remain unchanged

 

 

Q3. According to classical free electron theory, electrons in a metal are subjected to

(a) constant potential

(b) sinusoidal potential

(c) square-wave potential

(d) non-periodic potential

 

 

Q4. In ionic crystal, electrical conductivity is

(a) very high

(b) depends on material

(c) depends upon temperature

(d) practically zero

 

 

Q5. What type of defect causes F-centers in a crystal?

(a) Stoichiometric defect

(b) Metal excess defect due to anion vacancies

(c) Metal excess defect due to extra cation

(d) Frenkel defect

 

 

Q6. In crystal lattice, what are the vacancies created by the absence of certain atoms known as

(a) Hertz defects

(b) Schottky defects

(c) Pauli defects

(d) Crystal defects

 

 

Q7. Superconducting metal in superconducting state has relative permeability of

(a) more than one

(b) one

(c) zero

(d) negative

 

 

Q8. The dc resistivity and permeability exhibited by a type 1 superconductor are respectively

(a) zero and zero

(b) zero and unity

(c) unity and zero

(d) unity and unity

 

 

Q9. What is the magnetic susceptibility χ of an ideal superconductor?

(a) 1

(b) -1

(c) 0

(d) infinite

 

 

Q10. Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect?

(a) Seebeck effect

(b) Thomson effect

(c) Hall effect

(d) joule effect

 

Solutions

S1. Ans. (c)

Sol. EMF of a thermo couple depends upon both factors

  • nature of material of metal
  • difference of temperature of two junctions

 

S2. Ans. (d)

Sol. It will remain unchanged

 

S3. Ans. (a)

Sol. constant potential

 

S4. Ans. (d)

Sol. In ionic crystal, electrical conductivity is practically zero.

 

S5. Ans. (b)

Sol. Metal excess defect due to anion vacancies

 

S6. Ans. (b)

Sol. Schottky defects

 

S7. Ans. (c)

Sol. Zero

 

S8. Ans. (a)

Sol. Zero and zero

 

S9. Ans. (b)

Sol. -1

 

S10. Ans. (a)

Sol. Seebeck effect

 

 

 

Quiz: Mechanical Engineering 8 June 2020

Quiz: Mechanical Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC JE
Topic: Miscellaneous

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/3 mark
Time: 10 Minutes
Q1. A metal block is thrown into deep lake. As it sinks deeper in water, the buoyant force acting on it
(a) increases
(b) remains the same
(c) decreases
(d) first increases and then decreases

Q2. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Streamlines cannot start or end anywhere except at the interface or infinity.
(b) Streamline spacing varies directly as the flow velocity.
(c) Streamlines can meet at a stagnation point where the velocity is zero.
(d) The flow is only along the streamline and not across it.

Q3. In a Carnot engine, when working substance gives heat to the sink
(a) temperature of the sink increases
(b) temperature of the sink remains same
(c) temperature of the source decreases
(d) temperature of both the sink and source decreases

Q4. Three engines A, B and C operating on Carnot cycle respectively use air, Nitrogen and Argon as the working fluid. If all the engine operates within the same temperature limit, then which engine will have highest efficiency.
(a) Engine A
(b) Engine B
(c) Engine C
(d) All engines will have same efficiency

Q5. When a system is in equilibrium, any conceivable change in entropy would be
(a) maximum
(b) zero
(c) positive
(d) negative

Q6. Which of the following is false statements?
Some of the methods used to reduce diesel smoke are as follows
(a) using additives in the fuel
(b) engine derating i.e. reducing the maximum flow of fuel
(c) increasing the compression ratio
(d) avoidance of overloading

Q7. The instrument preferred in the measurement of highly fluctuating velocities in air flows is
(a) Pitot-static tube
(b) Propeller type anemometer
(c) Three cup anemometer
(d) Hot wire anemometer

Q8. Perpetual motion machine of second kind violates the
(a) First law of thermodynamics
(b) Kelvin-Planck statement
(c) Clausius statement
(d) Third law of thermodynamics

Q9. Second law of thermodynamics defines
(a) Heat
(b) Work
(c) Enthalpy
(d) Entropy

Q10. Consider the following statements pertaining to large heat transfer rate using fins
1. Fins should be used on the side where heat transfer coefficient is small.
2. Long and thick fins should be used.
3. Short and thin fins should be used.
4. Thermal conductivity of fin material should be large.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

SOLUTION

S1. Ans (b)
Sol. As buoyant force depends only on the displaced volume of fluid by the submerged or floating body according to Archimedes principle. So, volume displaced by the metal block will remain constant from when it sinks in the fluid till it sinks deeper, hence, the buoyant force on the metal block remains same.

S2. Ans (b)
Sol. Streamline spacing is inversely proportional to the velocity, it means for accelerated flow spacing between streamlines is less and for retarded flow, this spacing will be more.

S3. Ans (b)
Sol. When working substance gives heat to the sink then its temperature remains same
because sink and source both are considered as reservoir of heat.

S4. Ans (d)
Sol. As efficiencies of Carnot engines working between same temperature limits do not depend upon working fluid of engines.
So, engine A, B and C all three will have same efficiency.

S5. Ans (b)
Sol. When a system is in equilibrium, any conceivable change in entropy would be zero.
Because when a system reaches in equilibrium state then its entropy will be maximum at that state.

S6. Ans (c)
Sol. Increasing the compression ratio is not recommended to reduce diesel smoke as it increases the weight of the engine and cost which is not worthy for reducing diesel smoke.

S7. Ans (d)
Sol. Hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement of highly fluctuating velocities in air. This can be done by measuring the heat loss of the wire which is placed in the fluid stream. The wire is heated by electrical current. The hot wire when placed in the stream of the fluid, in that case, the heat is transferred from wire to fluid, and hence the temperature of wire reduces. The resistance of wire measures the flow rate of the fluid which is the function of heat loss from the wire and change in the resistance of wire.

S8. Ans (b)
Sol. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind is a machine which produces work while exchanging heat from a single heat source. Which violates Kelvin-Planck statement of Second law of thermodynamics.

S9. Ans (d)
Sol. Second law of thermodynamics defines Entropy or energy degradation.
As second law of thermodynamics states that Heat (low grade energy) cannot be converted into work (high grade energy) completely because it violates Kelvin-Planck statement.

S10. Ans (d)
Sol. Fins are used where thermal conductivity of material is high and coefficient of heat transfer is small. We should use short and thin fins to increase heat transfer area exposed to environment.

Quiz: Civil Engineering 5 june 2020

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Miscellaneous

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Granite is a rock that is by nature:
(a) Metamorphic
(b) Volcanic
(c) Plutonic
(d) Sedimentary

Q2. Which one of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?
(a) Air Valve – to check the water flow in pipes, in the directions
(b) Check valve – To release the accumulated air in pipelines.
(c) Scour valve – To drain or empty the pipe line section
(d) Surge arrestor – control of water hammer in pipe lines

Q3. The item of the brick structure measured in sq. m is
(a) Broken glass coping
(b) Brick work in arches
(c) Reinforced brick work
(d) Brick edging

Q4. The penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its
(a) Grade
(b) Ductility
(c) Viscosity
(d) None of these

Q5. There will be no tension in the dam if the resultant passes through the
(a) last third
(b) middle third
(c) middle two-third
(d) none of the above

Q6. Reinforced concrete Slab act as
(a) Rigid diaphragm
(b) Flexible diaphragm
(c) Brittle diaphragm
(d) None of the above

Q7. Seepage pressure always acts
(a) in the direction opposite to flow
(b) in the direction of flow
(c) in the direction perpendicular to flow
(d) in all the direction

Q8. In case of principal axis of a section
(a) sum of moment of inertia is zero
(b) difference of moment of inertia is zero
(c) product of moment of inertia is zero
(d) None of these

Q9. Agonic line passes through the points of:
(a) Equal declination
(b) Zero declination
(c) Equal dip
(d) Equal bearing

Q10. Specific weight of sea water is more than that of pure water because it contains
(a) dissolved air
(b) Dissolved salt
(c) Suspended matter
(d) all options are correct

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. →Granite is a plutonic rock, also known as ‘intrusive Igneous rock’.
→ it is hard and durable hence is suitable for building piers.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Check value or reflux valve or non-returning valves are allows the flow only in one direction only back flow is not permitted.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Broken glass coping measured in terms of square meter while reinforced brick work measured in terms of cubic meter.

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. The penetration test on bitumen is used for determining the Grade of bitumen.

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. If the resultant of all the forces passes from the middle third portion from the base then there will be no tension in the dam.
▭(e≤b/6)
Where, e= eccentricity
b= width of dam section

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Reinforced concrete slab act as a rigid diaphragm.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. seepage pressure always acts in the direction of flow.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. An object rotating about an axis, the resistance of a body to accelarate is called inertia of mass. In case of principal axis of a section the product of moment of Inertia is zero.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Agonic line – line connecting 0° declination angle
Isogonic line – line connecting same declination angle.
Isoclinic line – line connecting same angle of dip
Aclinic line – line connecting 0° dip angle.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. All options are correct, we all are aware already with this fact that sea water contains dissolved salt, dissolved air and some suspended matters which increase its specific weight as compare to pure water.

Quiz Electronics Engineering 2 June 2020

Quiz Electronics Engineering
Exam: NIC
Topic: Miscellaneous
Date: 02/06/2020

Each Question carries 1 Mark
Negative Marking: 1/4
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. A class member declared protected in Java becomes member of subclass of which type?
(a) Public Member
(b) Protected Member
(c) Private Member
(d) Static Member

Q2. How many full adders are required to construct an m-bit parallel adder?
(a) m
(b) m – 1
(c) m/2
(d) m + 1

Q3. Which type of traversal of binary search tree outputs the value in sorted order?
(a) Pre-order
(b) In-order
(c) Post-order
(d) Level-order

Q4. A positive AND gate is also a negative
(a) NAND gate
(b) OR gate
(c) AND gate
(d) NOR gate

Q5. Events A and B are mutually exclusive and have non-zero probability. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
(a) P(AUB) = P(A) + P(B)
(b) P(B’) > P(A)
(c) P(A∩B) = P(A)P(B)
(d) P(B’) < P(A)

Q6. Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a shared lock on R. It will
(a) result in deadlock situation
(b) immediately be granted
(c) immediately be rejected.
(d) None of the above

Q7. Web links are stored within the page itself and when you wish to jump to the page that is linked, we select the hotspot or anchor. This technique is called
(a) Hypertext
(b) Hypermedia
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) Anchoring

Q8. Which of the following is not a form of main memory?
(a) Instruction opcode
(b) Instruction register
(c) Instruction cache
(d) Translation look-aside buffer

Q9. The number of the edges in a regular graph of degree ‘d’ and ‘n’ vertices is
(a) Maximum of n, d
(b) n + d
(c) nd
(d) nd/2

Q10. Synthesized attribute can easily be simulated by an
(a) LL grammar
(b) ambiguous grammar
(c) LR grammar
(d) None of the above

 

 

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. A class member which is declared protected from before becomes the Private member of subclass.

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. For n-bit adder, we require-
(a) (n-1) FA and 1 HA ; or
(b) n FA ; or
(c) (2n-1) HA & (n-1) OR gate.

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol.
(a) In Pre-order , the Root node is visited first, then the Left subtree and at last Right Subtree.
(b) In-order, Left Subtree is visited first , then the Root node, and at last Right Subtree.
(c) Post-order, at first Left Subtree, then Right Subtree and finally Root node.
(d) Level-order is breadth first traversal for the tree.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Positive AND gate has input A, B and output AB.
Negative OR gate will have inverter at both inputs and 1 Output.
So, Output at the negative OR gate is
(A ̅+B ̅ ) ̅ = (AB) ̅ ̅ = AB = Positive AND gate output

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. By principle of inclusion and exclusion, we get
P(AUB) = P(A) + P(B) + P(A∩B)
In Mutually exclusive condition –
P(A∩B) = 0

So, P(AUB) = P(A) + P(B)

S6. Ans.(b)

immediately be granted

S7. Ans.(c)

Sol. Both (a) and (b)

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Instruction opcode tells about what operation to be performed. Excluding it, all are form of a main memory.

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. Given:
Number of vertices = n
Degree of each vertices or number of neighbours of each vertices = d
So, Total edges = nd/2

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Both Synthesized attribute and LR grammar are evaluated in bottom up method. So, these can be simulated easily.

Quiz: Mechanical Engineering 2 June 2020

Quiz: Mechanical Engineering
Exam: ISRO
Topic: Material science

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/3 mark
Time: 10 Minutes
Q1. Atoms are arranged in face centred cubic (FCC) structure as
(a) All eight corners of the cube
(b) All eight corners of the cube and one of the body center
(c) All eight corners of the cube and at the center of each face
(d) All eight corners of the cube and one at the body center with one at the center of each face

Q2. Which of the following are zero dimensional defects?
1. Vacancy
2. Interstitial defect
3. Substitutional defect
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. The number of electrons found in the outer most orbit of semi-conductor materials is,
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

Q4. What is the packing factor of FCC crystal structure?
(a) 0.64
(b) 0.68
(c) 0.74
(d) 0.78

Q5. Which is false statement about annealing?
(a) Annealing is done to relieve stresses
(b) Annealing is done to harden steel slightly
(c) Annealing is done to improve machine characteristics
(d) Annealing is done to soften material

Q6. Pearlite is a combination of:
(a) Ferrite and cementite
(b) Cementite and gamma iron
(c) Ferrite and austenite
(d) Ferrite and iron graphite

Q7. The Burger’s vector lies parallel to the dislocation line along the axis of a line of atoms in the same plane in:
(a) Screw dislocation
(b) Edge dislocation
(c) Cracks
(d) Vacancies

Q8. The atomic bond found in diamond is:
(a) Ionic
(b) Covalent
(c) Metallic bond
(d) None of these

Q9. Carbon content is highest in:
(a) Mild steel
(b) Eutectoid steels
(c) Hypoeutectoid steels
(d) Hypereutectoid steels

Q10. Which of the following is non-destructive test
(a) tensile test
(b) charpy test
(c) cupping test
(d) radiography test

S1. Ans(c)
Sol. Atoms are arranged in face centred cubic structure as all eight corners of the cube and at the centre of each face.

S2. Ans(d)
Sol. Defects in metal
(1) Point defect or zero dimensional defect
(a) Vacancy defect
(b) Interstitial defect
(c) Substitutional defect
(d) Frankle defect
(e) Schottky defect
(2) Surface defect
(a) Grain boundary defect
(b) Twin boundary defect
(c) Tilt boundary defect
(d) Staking faults
(3) Line defect
(a) Edge dislocation defect
(b) Screw dislocation defect

S3. Ans(b)
Sol. The number of electrons found in the outer most orbit of semi-conductor materials is 4.

S4. Ans(c)
Sol. Type of cell Packing factor
Simple cubic (SC) – 0.52
Hexagonal Close packed (HCP) – 0.74
Body centered cubic (BCC) – 0.68
Face-centered cubic (FCC) – 0.74

S5. Ans(b)
Sol. Annealing reduces the hardness of the steel completely and improve toughness, it is complete softening process and increase ductility.

S6. Ans(a)
Sol. Pearlite consists of 87% ferrite (layer are thick) and 13% cementite (thin layer) arranged alternatively in a lamelle formation.

S7. Ans(a)
Sol. Screw dislocation:- When a part of Crystal displaced angularly over the remaining about some edge, the dislocation is called screw dislocation.
(i) Burger’s vector is parallel to the screw dislocation line, whose direction is perpendicular.
(ii) Screw dislocation creates shear stress and strain in the crystal.

S8. Ans(b)
Sol. The atomic bond found is diamond is covalent bond.
Covalent Bond:- It is also called homopolar bond. This bond result by mutual sharing of valence electrons of identical atoms. The electronic structure of an atom is relatively stable it has eight electrons in its outer valence shell, which sometimes an atom acquires by shearing electrons with an adjacent similar atom. Diamond, methane chlorine are typical examples.

S9. Ans(d)
Sol. Carbon content is highest in hypereutectoid steels.

S10. Ans(d)
Sol. radiography test is the non-destructive test. In the radiography test there is no role of force so there is no deformation takes place within the testing material.
After the testing material is able to perform its functionality without any kind of destruction.

Quiz: Electrical Engineering 1 June 2020

Quiz: Electrical Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC JE
Topic: Measurement and measuring instrument
Each question carries 1 mark.
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minute

Q1. Horizontally mounted moving iron instruments employ
(a) eddy current damping
(b) air friction damping
(c) fluid friction damping
(d) electromagnetic damping

Q2. The deflecting torque of moving iron instrument is
(a) I^2 dL/dθ
(b) 1/2 I^2 dL/dθ
(c) I dL/dθ
(d) 1/2 I dL/dθ

Q3. Hysteresis error, in moving iron instruments, may be reduced by using
(a) mumetal or permalloy
(b) stainless steel
(c) silver coating
(d) high speed steel

Q4. A spring controlled moving iron voltmeter draws a current of 1 mA for full scale value of 100 V. If it draws a current of 0.5 mA the meter reading is
(a) 25 V
(b) 50 V
(c) 100 V
(d) 200 V

Q5. Moving coil permanent magnet instrument can be used for the measurement of
(a) AC and DC
(b) AC only
(c) DC only
(d) half wave rectified DC

Q6. An advantage of PMMC instrument is that it
(a) is free from friction error
(b) has high torque to weight ratio of moving parts
(c) has low torque to weight ratio
(d) can be used on both AC and DC

Q7. The term artificial aging in instrument is associated with
(a) springs
(b) permanent magnets
(c) controlling torques
(d) both (a) and (b)

Q8. A PMMC voltmeter is connected across a series combination of a dc voltage source V1 = 2V and an ac voltage source V2(t)= 3 Sin (4t) volts. The meter reads
(a) 2 V
(b) 5 V
(c) (2+√3/2)V
(d) √17/2 V

Q9. Which of the following meters does not exhibit square law response?
(a) Moving coil
(b) Moving iron
(c) Electrodynamometer
(d) hot wire instrument

Q10. Which of the following instrument is commonly used to measure primary current of a transformer connected to mains?
(a) Electrostatic meter
(b) Current transformer
(c) Moving coil type meter
(d) Moving iron meter

Solutions
S1. Ans. (b)
Sol. air friction damping

S2. Ans. (b)
Sol. The correct relation for torque in moving iron is 1/2 I^2 dL/dθ.

S3. Ans. (a)
Sol. mumetal or permalloy

S4. Ans. (a)
Sol. Deflection, θ∝I^2
So, V∝I^2
V2 = V1 ((I^2 2)/(I^2 1)), putting the value in equation we get as the result
V2 = 25 V
S5. Ans. (c)
Sol. Moving coil permanent magnet instrument can be used for the measurement of DC only.

S6. Ans. (b)
Sol. has high torque to weight ratio of moving parts.

S7. Ans. (d)
Sol. Both spring and controlling torque are associated with term aging.

S8. Ans. (a)
Sol. The average value of ac current is zero so the instrument will measure 2 V .

S9. Ans. (a)
Sol. Moving iron

S10. Ans. (d)
Sol. Moving iron meter

Quiz: Civil Engineering 30 MAY 2020

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Miscellaneous

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. According to IS 1200, the formwork shall be measured in:
(a) Tonnage
(b) cubic m
(c) square meter
(d) Linear length

Q2. The linear relation between the stress and strain of a material is valid until
(a) fracture stress
(b) elastic limit
(c) ultimate stress
(d) proportional limit

Q3. Water cement ratio is usually expressed in:
(a) Litres of water required per bag of cement
(b) Litres of water required per kg of cement
(c) m³ of water required per bag of cement
(d) m³ of water required per kg of cement

Q4. In a closed traverse……………..
(a) Difference between fore-bearing and back-bearing should be 90°
(b) Sum of included angles should be (2N-4) times right angle, where N represents the number of sides
(c) Sum of included angle should be (2N-1) time right angle, where N is the number of sides
(d) None of these

Q5. Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete is –
(a) M 10
(b) M 15
(c) M 20
(d) M25

Q6. Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal to
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.95
(d) 1.20

Q7. As per I.R.C. for bitumen bound macadam maximum aggregate impact value in % will be:
(a) 35
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 25

Q8. Aerobic attached growth process is classified under:
(a) activated sludge process
(b) chemical clarification
(c) biological treatment
(d) preliminary treatment

Q9. Dicken’s formula for determining maximum flood (with usual notation), is
(a) Q_p=CA^(3/4)
(b) Q_p=C_1 A^(2/3)
(c) Q_p=C√A
(d) Q_p=177C√A

Q10. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kind of fluids are attracted to each other is called _________.
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. the formwork shall be measured in square meter.

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. According to hooks law strain is directly proportional to stress within proportional limit.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Water Cement ratio is usually expressed in liters of water required per bag of cement.
▭(water-cement ratio= (weight of water)/(weight of cement))

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. In closed traverse, the sum of included angle should be (2n-4)×90°.
n→ No. of sides.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. ⇒ for Reinforced cement concrete minimum grade is M20
⇒ For plane cement concrete minimum grade is M15

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. relative density of compacted dense sand equal to 0.95.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. As per I.R.C for bitumen bound macadam maximum aggregate impact value will be 30%.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Aerobic attached growth process is a biological treatment in which biomass is attached over the medium and waste water passed through it.

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. Peak flood discharge given by dicken’s formula-
Q=CA^(3/4)
Where Q= Peak flood discharge (m³/sec)
C= Dicken’s coefficient
A= Area in km²

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. It is defined as-
Cohesion – an attractive force between same kind of fluid molecules.
Adhesion – an attractive force between different kind of fluid molecules.