QUIZ : CIVIL (01-07-2020)

Quiz: CIVIL ENGINEERING
Exam: TELANGANA-PSCM
Topic: Steel Structure

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: No negative marking
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The diameter of rivet hole in tension member using rivet of diameter more than 25mm will be equal to
(a) rivet diameter +3mm
(b) rivet diameter +2 mm
(c) rivet diameter +1.5 mm
(d) rivet diameter

Q2. The permissible longitudinal pitch in a riveted joint in tension is
(a) 12t or 200 mm
(b) 20t or 200 mm
(c) 16t or 200 mm
(d) 24t or 200 mm

Q3. Bearing strength of single riveted lap joint is equal to:
(a) d×t×f_b
(b) 2d×t×f_b
(c) 2×d²×t×f_b
(d) None of the above

Q4. Shear strength in double shear in riveted joints is given by:
(a) (πd^2)/4 f_s
(b) (2πd^2)/4 f_s
(c) π/4 〖df〗_s
(d) none of the above

Q5. A plate 10 mm thick is to be jointed to a plate of 12 mm thickness. The nominal diameter of rivet to make connection is
(a) 18 mm
(b) 22 mm
(c) 24 mm
(d) 20 mm

Q6. Rivet value is equal to
(a) strength of rivet in shearing
(b) strength of rivet in bearing
(c) strength of rivet in tension
(d) minimum of (a) and (b)

Q7. Gauge length of steel specimen as per codal provision is:
(a) 5d
(b) 5.65 √(A_0 )
(c) 6d
(d) 8d

Q8. According to IS:800-1984, what is the permissible bending stress in steel slab plate?
(a) 2000 kg/cm²
(b) 1600 kg/cm²
(c) 1890 kg/cm²
(d) 1450 kg/cm²

Q9. The efficiency of the riveted joints is equal to:
(a) (Length of soild plate)/(diameter of rivet)×100%
(b) (strength of soild plate)/(Strength of rivet joint)×100%
(c) (Strength of rivet joint)/(Strength of soild plate)×100%
(d) (Strength of plate)/(Length of rivet)×100%

Q10. As per structural properties of structural steel, the unit mass of steel is __________.
(a) 250×10³ g/m³
(b) 7835×10³ g/m³
(c) 5000×10³ g/m³
(d) 7850×10³ g/m³

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. in case of rivet
→ if rivet diameter is less than 25 mm then diameter of hole equal to diameter of rivet plus 1.5 mm.
→ if rivet diameter is more than 25 mm then diameter of hole equal to diameter of rivet plus 2 mm.
S2. Ans.(c)
Sol.
→ Permissible longitudinal pitch in tension is (16 t, 200 mm) whichever is less
→ Permissible longitudinal pitch in compression is (12 t, 200 mm) whichever is less
Where, t = thickness of thinner outside plate
S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Bearing strength of rivet joint
(d×t×σ_bp )
σ_bp→ permissible bearing stress in rivet.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. shear strength in double shear rivetted joint
=2×π/4 d^2×σ_Sp
d → gross diameter
σ_sp → permissible shear stress.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Nominal diameter of rivet.
According to Unwin’s formula
d=6.05 √t (Where t- mm)
d=6.05 √10
▭(d=19.13 mm)
→ in question two thickness of plate given but in Unwin’s formula minimum thickness used

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Rivet value is equal to minimum of shearing strength & bearing strength of rivet.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. As per IS code gauge length of steel specimen = 5.65 √(A_O )
A_O → cross sectional area of the specimen

S8. Ans.(C)
Sol. According to Is-code permissible bending stress in steel slab plate is
⇒ 1890 kg/cm²

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol.
▭(Efficiency (η)=(Strength of riveted joint)/(Strength of plate without hole))

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. density of structure steel = 7850 kg/m³

QUIZ: CIVIL (17-06-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPPSC-AE
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS
Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/3 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. A substance bar can be used to determine:
(a) Horizontal angles
(b) Horizontal distances
(c) Vertical angles
(d) Horizontal and vertical distances

Q2. A linen tape which is reinforced with copper or brass wires is termed as :
(a) Linen tape
(b) Metallic tape
(c) Invar tape
(d) Steel tape

Q3. If the fore bearing of the line AB is 119°48’ then back baring is:
(a) 299° 48’
(b) 209°48’
(c) 119°48’
(d) 319°48’

Q4. In a closed traverse……………..
(a) Difference between fore-bearing and back-bearing should be 90°
(b) Sum of included angles should be (2N-4) times right angle, where N represents the number of sides
(c) Sum of included angle should be (2N-1) time right angle, where N is the number of sides
(d) None of these

Q5. Per capita water demand is –
(a) average amount of daily water required by one person
(b) monthly average amount of daily water required by one person
(c) annual average amount of daily water required by one person
(d) weekly average amount of daily water required by one person

Q6. The Buston’s formula for estimating water required for fire demand is _____.
(a) 7500√P
(b) 3182 √P
(c) 4637√P
(d) 5663√P

Q7. The water formations that are impermeable and contain water, but are not capable of transmitting a significant quantity are called as:
(a) Perched Aquifer
(b) Confined Aquifer
(c) Aquifer
(d) Aquiclude
Q8. The pH value of the incoming water is 7.2 and outgoing water is 8.4, assuming a linear variation of pH with time determine average pH value of water:
(a) 7.800
(b) 7.474
(c) 7.2
(d) 8.4

Q9. The difference of the pressure head (h) measured by a differential U tube manometer used for the measurement of difference in pressure of an oil flowing through a pipe is given by which of the following equation?
Where, S_m = specific gravity of the manometric liquid (mercury), S_o= gravity of oil
x = Deflection of the mercury level/
(a) h=x[1-(S_m/s_o )]
(b) h=x[(S_m/s_o )-1]
(c) h=x (S_o-S_m )
(d) h=x (S_m-S_o )

Q10. If the duty of a crop is 864 hectare/cumec and the base period is 120 days, then what is the delta of the crop?
(a) 60 cm
(b) 120 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 90 cm

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. substance bar is used to measure 90° Angle in any point & drawing perpendicular by exterior point & also used to measure horizontal distance.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. fore bearing of line ‘AB’ = 119°48’
Fore baring is less than 180° so we calculate back bearing by adding 180°. If fore bearing greater than 180° than we subtract 180° from it.
Back bearing of line AB = 180°+〖119°48〗^’=〖299°48〗^’

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. In closed traverse sum of included angle should be (2n-4)×90°.
n→ No. of sides.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Per capita water demand is annual average amount of daily water required by one person.

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Buston formula for estimating water required for fire demand ▭(Q=5663√P)
Where Q = l/min.
P = population (in thousands)

S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. An Aquiclude is a geological formation which contains a large amount of water but it does not permit water through it and also does not yield water. It is highly porous but impermeable. Ex. clay.
S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. pH of incoming water = 7.2
pH of outgoing water = 8.4
Average pH value of water =?
pH = – log [H+]
7.2 = – log [H+]
Tanking anti log-
[H+] = 10^(-7.2)———— (1)
pH = – log [H+]
8.4 = – log [H+]
Tanking anti log-
[H+] = 10^(-8.4)———— (2)
Average concentration of [H+] = (10^(-7.2)+10^(-8.4))/2

Average pH = – log (10^(-7.2)+10^(-8.4))/2
= – log [3.35384×10^(-8) ]
= -(-7.47445762)
= 7.474
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Difference in measure in pressure h=x((S_m/S_0 )-1)

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. Given
Duty = 864 hectare/cumec
Base period = 120 days
∆= ?
Relation between duty and delta is, ∆ = 8.64 B/D
= 8.64×120/864
= 1.2 m.or 120 cm

QUIZ: CIVIL (16-JUNE-2020)

Quiz: CIVIL ENGINEERING
Exam: TELANGANA-PSCM
Topic: Hydraulics & Fluid Mechanics

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: No negative marking
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Pressure in terms of metres of oil (specific gravity = 0.9) equivalent to 4.5 m of water is
(a) 4.05
(b) 5.0
(c) 3.6
(d) 0.298

Q2. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2m × 1m with its top 2 m surface beings 0.5 m below the water level will be………….
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg

Q3. Mercury is used in barometers because
(a) it is the best liquid
(b) the height of barometer will be less
(c) its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
(d) both (b) and (c)

Q4. Manometer is used for measuring
(a) Velocity at a point in a fluid
(b) Pressure at a point in a fluid
(c) Difference of pressure between two points
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q5. When various fluid particles move in zig-zag paths, flow is called:
(a) Laminar flow
(b) Turbulent flow
(c) Uniform flow
(d) None of above

Q6. If a pipe of dia. 30 cm running full with water with velocity 100 m/sec is changed by a pipe of dia. 15cm, then the velocity of water flowing through the pipe will be
(a) 50m/sec
(b) 25m/sec
(c) 200m/sec
(d) 400m/sec

Q7. The hydraulic gradient line
(a) Is always below the total energy line
(b) Is always parallel to bottom
(c) Is always above the total energy line
(d) Is always along the total energy line

Q8. If water enters into the pipe from a reservoir or a tank, then at the entrance into the pipe the head loss will be……………….
(a) V²/2g
(b) 1.2V²/2g
(c) 0.5 V²/2g
(d) ((V_1-V_2)² )/2g

Q9. The discharge through a trapezoidal channel is maximum when:
(a) width of the channel at top is twice the width at bottom
(b) depth of channel is equal to the width at bottom
(c) the sloping side is equal to the half of the width at the top
(d) the sloping side is equal to the width at the bottom

Q10. If the depth and width of a canal is 2 m and 3m respectively, longitudinal slope is 1 in 1000 and Chezy’s constant is 60. The discharge shall be:
(a) 12.6m³/sec.
(b) 9.62m³/sec.
(c) 10.54m³/sec.
(d) 8.50 m³/sec.

SOLUTION

S1. Ans. (b)
Sol. (ρgh) oil = (ρgh) water
1000 × 0.9 × 9.81× h = 1000 × 9.81 × 4.5

h = 5 m of oil

S2. Ans. (d)
Sol.

P =ρgh ̅A
= 1000 × 9.81 × (0.5 + 1/2) × 2 × 1

P = 19620 N.

P = 19620/9.81 kg.

P = 2000 km

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. Mercury is used in barometers because
→ Its vapour pressure is practically zero.
→ the height of barometer will be less.
→ Its high density.

S4. Ans. (d)
Sol. U-tube manometer ⇒ It is used to measure Low, medium, High, Positive & Negative gauge pressure.
Differential manometer – used for measure pressure difference between two Point
S5. Ans. (b)
Sol. When fluid particle moves in zig – zag path then flow is turbulent flow

S6. Ans. (d)
Sol.

By continuity equation
A₁ V₁ = A₂ V₂
π/4 (30)² × 100 = π/4 × (15)² × V₂

V₂ = 400 m/sec
S7. Ans. (a)
Sol. Hydraulic grade line
(i) Joining the point of piezometric head
(ii) Line may go up or down in the fluid flow
(iii) Always lies below the total energy line.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Loss of energy at the exit of pipe =
(0.5 V²)/2g
S9. Ans. (c)
Sol. In most efficient trapezoidal channel the sloping side in equal to the half of the width at top.

S10. Ans. (c)
Sol.
Depth (y) = 2 m
Width (b) = 3 m
Slope (S) = 1 in 1000
Constant (c) = 60
Q = AC √RS
Q = 3 × 2 × 60 √(A/P×1/100)
Q = 3 × 2 × 60 √((3×2)/(3+4)×1/1000)
Q = 10. 539 m³/sec

QUIZ : CIVIL (13-06-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Surveying

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. When the curve is to be set out over a rough ground, the method used is
(a) Two theodolite method
(b) Rankine method
(c) Tacheometric method
(d) Either (a) or (c)

Q2. In case of a direct vernier scale
(a) graduations increase in opposite direction in which graduations of the main scale increase
(b) smallest division is longer than smallest division of the main scale
(c) graduations increase in the same direction in which graduations of the main scale increase
(d) None of these

Q3. Sensitiveness of a level tube is designated by
(a) radius of level tube
(b) length of bubble tube
(c) length of bubble of level tube
(d) None of the above

Q4. Levelling operation includes:
(a) The second sight on any change point is a foresight
(b) the first sight on any change point is a back sight
(c) the line commences with a back sight and closes with a foresight
(d) The line commences with a fore sight and close with a backsight

Q5. The mean sea level (MSL) adopted by the survey of India for reference is located at
(a) Karachi
(b) Kolkata
(c) New Delhi
(d) Mumbai

Q6. A contour line joins all the points having:
(a) Equal elevation
(b) Zero elevation
(c) Similar reference points
(d) Equal vertical angles

Q7. Direct method of contouring is-
(a) A quick method
(b) Adopted for large surveys only
(c) Most accurate method
(d) Suitable for hilly terrains

Q8. The method of levelling used to carry out reconnaissance of area is:
(a) Check levelling
(b) Fly levelling
(c) Profile levelling
(d) Simple levelling

Q9. A chord between two successive station is called ___________:
(a) Normal chord
(b) Successive chord
(c) None of the above
(d) Sub-chord

Q10. In plane tabling, the instrument used to measure horizontal and vertical distance directly, is known as ……………..
(a) Plane alidade
(b) Telescopic alidade
(c) Tacheometer
(d) Clinometer

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. when the curve is to be set out over a rough ground. Theodolite method & tacheometric method is used.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. Direct vernier – division which are slightly shorter than main scale. Reading increases in the direction of the main scale.
→ n division of vernier is equal to (n-1) division of main scale.
Retrograde vernier – Division which are slightly longer than main scale. Reading increases in a direction opposite to main scale. n division of vernier (n+1) division of main scale.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. sensitiveness of level tube is designated by radius of level tube.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. in leveling operation start with a back site & end with Fore sight.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. the mean sea level is adopted by survey of India is located at Mumbai, but earlier the reference of mean sea level (M.S.L) was located in Karachi (Pakistan).

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. contour line joins all the points whose elevation is same on the earth surface.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. direct method of contouring is the most accurate method. It is suitable for large scale maps when ground surface is regular.

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. fly levelling is used for reconnaissance of the area. Purpose of this levelling for determination of approximate elevation of points.

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. Chord between two successive station is called normal chord.

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. In plane tabling “Telescope alidade” used to measure horizontal & vertical distance directly.

QUIZ:CIVIL ENGINEERING (09-06-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UKSSSC-JE
Topic: Transportation engineering

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Enoscope is used to determine
(a) spot speed
(b) average speed
(c) travel time
(d) none of these

Q2. Webster’s method is used for:
(a) Road marking
(b) Marking centerline of the road
(c) Determine design traffic volume
(d) Determine optimum signal cycle

Q3. The distance travelled by a moving vehicle during perception and breaker action time is known as
(a) Sight distance
(b) Stopping distance
(c) Lag distance
(d) None of these

Q4. The most suitable traffic signal system for mixed traffic condition is
(a) simple progressive
(b) alternate
(c) simultaneous
(d) flexible progressive

Q5. The colour of the light used for visibility during fog is
(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) Greed
(d) White

Q6. The magnitude of tyre pressure controls the following:
(a) Total thickness of pavement
(b) Number of layers to be provided in pavement
(c) type of sub-base and base course
(d) Quality of material to be used in the upper layers of pavement

Q7. Whose theory is primarily applied for designing rigid pavements?
(a) Bossinessq
(b) Westergaard
(c) Skempton
(d) Mc Cormec

Q8. In rigid pavements, the contraction joints spacing is normally provided as-
(a) 2.5 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 4.5 m
(d) 5.5 m

Q9. The top of the ground on which the foundation of the road rests is called as
(a) soil-sub grade
(b) sub-base course
(c) wearing course
(d) Base course

Q10. Water bound macadam roads are constructed with the following type of materials:
(a) Crushed stone aggregates
(b) Soil and Gravel mixture
(c) Disintegrated Rocks
(d) Moorum

SOLUTION
S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Enoscope or mirror box method is used to determine spot speed.
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. Webster’s method is used for determining optimum signal cycle length (C_O) and it is given by according to webster’s method–

▭(C_O=(1.5L+5)/(1-Y))
L = Total lost time in a cycle length
Y = sum of critical flow rate for all phasess

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Lag distance is the distance travelled by a moving vehicle during perception and breaker action time.
S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. The most suitable traffic signal system for mixed traffic condition is flexible progressive.
S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. yellow light is used for visibility during fog.
S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. The magnitude of tyre pressure controls the quality of material to be used in the upper layers of pavement.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Westergaard theory is primarily applied for designing rigid pavements.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Contraction joints are used to prevent the contraction in rigid pavements. The contraction joints spacing is normally provided as 4.5. m.

S9. Ans.(a )
Sol. The top of the ground on which the foundation of the road rests is called as soil-sub grade.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. water bound Macadam roads are constructed with crushed stone aggregates or stone dust.

QUIZ: CIVIL (03-06-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UKSSSC-JE
Topic: RAILWAY ENGINEERING

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The sharpness of the curve is designated by its _____________.
(a) Normal chord
(b) Intersection angle
(c) Degree of curvature
(d) Tangent distance

Q2. Coning of wheels is provided
(a) to check lateral movement of wheels
(b) to avoid damage to the inner faces of rails
(c) to avoid discomfort to passengers
(d) all of these

Q3. If L is the length of a rail and R is the radius of a curve, the versine h for the curve is …………
(a) a=L/4R
(b) a=L²/4R
(c) h=L²/8R
(d) h=L²/16R

Q4. Maximum degree of curvature for B.G. track is: –
(a) 20°
(b) 10°
(c) 16°
(d) 15°

Q5. The shift of the transition curve of radius 300m and length 48m is
(a) 0.32 m
(b) 0.42 m
(c) 0.52 m
(d) 0.62 m

Q6. What is the curve resistance for a 50 tonnes train on a BG track on a 4° curve?
(a) 0.05 tonne
(b) 0.06 tonne
(c) 0.08 tonne
(d) 0.01 tonne

Q7. In India, the ruling gradient provided in plains for one locomotive train is
(a) 1 IN 150 to 1 IN 200
(b) 1 IN 200 to 1 IN 250
(c) 1 IN 250to 1 IN 300
(d) 1 IN 300 to 1 IN 350

Q8. The total angle of deflection of a transition curve is equal to: –
(a) Spiral angle
(b) Spiral angle/2
(c) Spiral angle/3
(d) Spiral angle/4

Q9. The type of transition curve used in Indian railways, is
(a) spiral
(b) cubic parabola
(c) lemniscate
(d) S-curve

Q10. Following method is used to calculate the crossing angle
(a) right angle method
(b) centre line method
(c) isosceles triangle method
(d) all of these

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. The sharpens of the curve is designated by its degree of curvature.

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. Coning of wheel is provide
(i) To check lateral movement of wheels
(ii) To reduce wear & Tear of wheels
(iii) To avoid discomfort of passengers
(iv) To avoid damages to the inner faces of rails.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. ▭(Versine of curve (h)= L^2/8R )
L = Length of rail
R = Radius of curve

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Gauge Maximum degree of curve
1. Broad Gauge (BG)
2. Meter Gauge (MG)
3. Narrow Gauge (NG) 10°
16°
40°

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Given, R = 300m.
L = 48 m.
Shift (S) = ?
S = L^2/(24 R)
=((48)²)/(24×300)
= 0.32 m.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. Given, Degree (D°) = 4°
Total weight of Train (W) = 50 Tonnes
The curvature resistance for BG = 0.0004 WD°
= 0.0004 × 50 × 4
= 0.08 Torne

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. The ruling gradient is provided for one locomotive train is a following –
Plain Areas → 1 in 150 to 1 in 200
Hilly Areas → 1 in 100 to 1 in 150

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. ▭(Deflection anlgle (δ)=(spiral angle (α))/3)

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. The type of transition curve used in India railways, it cubic parabola.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. There are following method used to calculate crossing angle-
(i) Right angle triangle method.
(ii) Centre line method.
(iii) Isocele triangle method

QUIZ: CIVIL (02-MAY-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Hydraulics & Fluid Mechanics

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Flow of water through under atmospheric pressure is called
(a) pipe flow
(b) Uniform flow
(c) Open channel flow
(d) Non- uniform flow

Q2. In open channels, maximum velocity occurs:
(a) near the channel bottom
(b) in the mid-depth of flow
(c) just below the free surface
(d) at the surface

Q3. The term ‘alternate depths’ in open channel flow refers to the
(a) depth having the same kinetic energy for a given discharge
(b) depths on either side of a hydraulic jump
(c) depths having the same specific energy for a given discharge
(d) depth before and after the passage of the surge

Q4. A channel is said to be in scouring when:
(a) the critical velocity ratio is one
(b) the critical displacement ratio is one
(c) the critical angular ratio is one
(d) the critical viscous ratio is one

Q5. Which type of meter is used to measure hydraulic jump?
(a) critical depth meter
(b) depth of channel meter
(c) depth of flow meter
(d) velocity meter

Q6. A fluid, which is incompressible and is having no viscosity is:
(a) Newtonian fluid
(b) Non Nwetoniam
(c) Ideal fluid
(d) Real fluid

Q7. Bulk modulus of a fluid is the ratio of
(a) shear stress to shear strain
(b) increase in volume to the viscosity of fluid
(c) increase in pressure to the volumetric strain
(d) critical velocity to the velocity of fluid

Q8. The velocity distribution for flow between two fixed parallel plate_______________.
(a) Is constant over the cross-section
(b) Is zero at the plates and increases linearly to the mid-plane
(c) Varies parabolically across the section
(d) Is zero in middle and increase linearly towards the plates

Q9. The total line lies over the hydraulic gradient line by an amount equal to:
(a) Velocity head, V²/2g
(b) datum head, Z
(c) Sum of pressure, velocity and datum heads
(d) Pressure head, P/y

Q10. A compound pipe system consists of 1800m of 50cm, 1200m of 40cm and 600m of 30cm cast iron pipes connected in series. If this system is converted into an equivalent length of 40 cm pipe, the length will be
(a) 4300m
(b) 4320 m
(c) 4310 m
(d) 4380m

SOUTION

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. In open channel flow water flow under atmospheric pressure

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. In open channel maximum velocity occure just below the free surface

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. → alternate depth having same specific energy
→ conjugate & sequent depth having same specific force

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Critical depth meter used to measure hydraulic Jump
S6. Ans. (c)
Sol. Ideal fluid
→ friction less (Inviscid fluid)
→ In compressible
→ No surface tension

S7. Ans. (c)

Sol. ▭(Bulk modules = (Increase in pressure )/(volumetric strain ))
S8. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol.

L₁ = 1800 m L₂ = 1200 m L₃ = 600 m
D₁ = 50 cm D₂ = 40 cm D₃ = 30 cm
→ In series connection discharge is constant
L/(D)^5 = L_1/(D_1 )^5 + L_2/(D_2 )^5 + L_3/(D_3 )^5
L_2/(40)^5 = 1800/(50)^5 + 1200/(40)^5 + 600/(30)^5

L = 4320 m

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING (27-05-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering

Exam: UPSSSC-JE

Topic: Transportation Engineering

Each question carries 1 mark

Negative marking: 1/4 mark

Time: 10 Minutes

 

Q1. The penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its

(a) Grade

(b) Ductility

(c) Viscosity

(d) None of these

 

 

Q2. The ductility value of bitumen is ………….

(a) Equal to that of tar

(b) More than that of tar

(c) Less than that of tar

(d) None of these

 

 

Q3. As per I.R.C. for bitumen bound macadam maximum aggregate impact value in % will be:

(a) 35

(b) 20

(c) 30

(d) 25

 

 

Q4. As per BIS bitumen grade 85/40, 65/25 etc. the first and second number represents:

(a) softening and penetration point

(b) Flash point and softening point

(c) Penetration and softening point

(d) Flash and penetration point

 

 

Q5. The Los angels abrasion value (%) of aggregates to be used for the final layer of bituminous concrete is limited to:

(a) 25

(b) 30

(c) 40

(d) 50

 

 

Q6. Charpy test is

(a) a bending test

(b) an impact test

(c) a fatigue test

(d) a hardness test

 

 

Q7. California bearing ratio (CBR)

(a) is a measure of soil strength

(b) is a procedure for designing flexible pavements

(c) is a method of soil identification

(d) is a measure to indicate the relative strength of paving materials

 

 

Q8. In a CBR test, if the CBR value at 5 mm is greater than that at 2.5 mm

(a) the higher value should be chosen

(b) the test should be repeated

(c) Average value of the two should be used

(d) none of these

 

 

Q9. The tie bars in a concrete pavement are provided in: –

(a) Contraction joints

(b) Expansion joints

(c) Longitudinal joints

(d) Construction joints

 

 

Q10. The height of the dowel above the road level should not be more than:

(a) 10 cm

(b) 20 cm

(c) 30 cm

(d) 40 cm

 

 

 

SOLUTION

 

S1. Ans.(a)

Sol. The penetration test on bitumen is used for determining the Grade of bitumen.

 

S2. Ans.(c)

Sol. The ductility value of bitumen is less than that of tar.

 

S3. Ans.(c)

Sol. As per I.R.C for bitumen bound macadam maximum aggregate impact value will be 30%.

 

S4. Ans.(a)

Sol. As per BIS bitumen grade 85/40, 65/25 etc. the first and second number represents softening point and penetration or consistency point.

 

S5. Ans.(b)

Sol. The los angle abrasion value (%) of aggregate to be used for the final layer of bituminous concrete is limited to 30%.

 

S6. Ans.(b)

Sol.   Charpy test is an impact test. It is used to evaluate the relative toughness or impact toughness of materials.

 

S7. Ans.(a)

Sol.   California Bearing ratio (CBR) is a measure of arbitrary soil strength. IRC consider CBR method for designing of flexible pavement.

 

S8. Ans.(b)

Sol.   In a CBR test, If the CBR value at 5mm is greater than at 2.5mm then test should be repeated.

 

S9. Ans.(c)

Sol.   The Tie bars in a concrete pavement are provided in Longitudinal joints. Tie bars are about 12.5mm in diameter and between 0.6 to 1.0 m long.

 

S10. Ans.(c)

Sol.   Dowel bare are used in expansion joints. The height of the dowel above the road level should not be more than 30cm.

 

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING (26-05-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPPSC-AE
Topic: Hydraulics & Fluid Mechanics
Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/3 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. In open channel flows, the characteristic length commonly used in defining the Reynolds number is the
(a) depth of flow
(b) wetted perimeter
(c) hydraulic radius
(d) area /top width

Q2. The height of hydraulic jump is equal to:
(a) Sequent depth
(b) Difference in conjugate depths
(c) Difference in alternate depths
(d) Initial depth

Q3. During the formation of hydraulic jump
(a) the specific energy and specific force remains constant
(b) the specific energy increase and specific force decreases
(c) the specific energy decrease and specific force increase
(d) the specific energy decrease and specific force remains constant

Q4. The total number of possible GVF profiles in open channel are
(a) 12
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 15

Q5. If the Froude number of a hydraulic jump is more than 9, this jump is classified as –
(a) Weak jump
(b) Strong jump
(c) Oscillating jump
(d) None of these

Q6. For an open channel, chezy’s formula is (symbol’s have their usual meanings)
(a) V = √CRS
(b) V =C √RS
(c) V = CRS
(d) V = C/√RS

Q7. The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a rectangular horizontal channel is a 10.30. The Froude number at the beginning of the jump is
(a) 5.64
(b) 7.63
(c) 8.05
(d) 13.61

Q8. For open channel, Manning’s formula with usual notations is –
(a) V = 1/N R^(1/3 ) S^(1/2 )
(b) V = 1/N R^(2/3 ) S^(1/2 )
(c) V = 1/N R^(1/3 ) S^(1/3 )
(d) None of the above

Q9. The critical depth at a section of a rectangular channel is 1.5m. The specific energy at that section is
(a) 0.75m
(b) 1.00m
(c) 1.50m
(d) 2.2m

Q10. For best triangular section the hydraulic radious should be:
(a) y
(b) y/√8
(c) y/2
(d) 2/√3 y

SOLUTION

S1. Ans. (c)
Sol. Reynold Number (Re) = ρVD/μ
Where, D = 4 × A/P
= 4 × hydraulic radius
S2. Ans. (b)
Sol. Height of hydraulic jump equal to difference in conjugate or sequent depth. Conjugate depth having same specific force

S3. Ans. (d)
Sol. During the formation of hydraulic jump specific energy decreases and specific force remains constant
S4. Ans. (a)
Sol. Number of GVF profile in open channel flow equal to twelve

S5. Ans. (b)
Sol. Classification of hydraulic jump –
Jump Froude Number
Undular Jump 1 to 1.7
Weak Jump 1.7 to 2.5
Oscillating Jump 2.5 to 4.5
Steady Jump 4.5 to 9
Strong Jump > 9

S6. Ans. (b)
Sol. According to chezy formula –

V = C √RS

S7. Ans. (b)
Sol. y_2/y_1 = 10.30
y_2/y_1 = (-1+√(1+8 Fr_1^2 ))/2
10.30 = (-1+√(1+8 ×Fr_1^2 ))/2

Fr_1^2 = 7.62
S8. Ans. (b)
Sol. Mannings formula –

v=1/n R^(2/3) S^(1/2)

n → Manning Coefficient

S9. Ans. (d)
Sol. Critical depth (y_c) = 1.5m
Specific Energy (E_c) = ?
E_c = 3/2 y_c
= 3/2 × 1.5

E_c = 2.25 m
S10. Ans. (b)
Sol. For most efficient triangular channel
Hydraulic Radiaus (R) = y/(2√2)

R=y/√8

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING (12-MAY-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering

Exam: UPSSSC-JE

Topic: Estimation and Valuation

 

Each question carries 1 mark

Negative marking: 1/4 mark

Time: 10 Minutes

 

Q1. While estimating for plastering, usually no deduction is made for –

(a) Ends of beams

(b) Small opening upto 0.5 sq. m.

(c) End of rafters

(d) All the above

 

 

Q2. The concrete work for the following part of the building of specified thickness is measured in square meters……………

(a) Root slabs

(b) Floors

(c) D. P. C.

(d) All options are correct

 

 

Q3. The quantity cement concrete damp-proofing course is measured in terms of …………

(a) m

(b) m²

(c) m³

(d) Lump-sum

 

 

Q4. The unit weight of R. C. C. (in kg/m³)……..

(a) 1200

(b) 1800

(c) 2500

(d) 3000

 

 

Q5. The brick work is measured in square meter, in case of

(a) Honey comb brick work

(b) Brick flat Soling

(c) Half brick walls or the partition

(d) All options are correct

 

 

Q6. The weight of 10 mm diameter mild steel rod per meter length is equal to________:

(a) 0.22 kg

(b) 0.32 kg

(c) 0.42 kg

(d) 0.62 kg

 

 

Q7. The unit of measurement is per quintal for:

(a) Collapsible gate with rails

(b) Rolling shutters

(c) Expanded metal wire netting

(d) Reinforcement of R. C. C. works

 

 

Q8. The item of the brick structure measured in sq. m is

(a) Broken glass coping

(b) Brick work in arches

(c) Reinforced brick work

(d) Brick edging

 

 

Q9. The unit of measurement for mass concrete is usually:

(a) Liner meter

(b) Metric tons

(c) Square meter

(d) cubic meter

 

 

Q10. The correct volume measured should be nearest to:

(a) 0.01 cu m

(b) 0.02 cu m

(c) 0.04 cu m

(d) 0.03 cu m

 

 

 

 

SOLUTION

 

S1. Ans.(d)

Sol.

Plastering is measured in terms of m².If,

(a) opening area < 0.5 m² (No deduction is applied)

(b) opening area is between 0.5 m² – 3m², then (single side deduction is applied)

(c) opening area > 3 m², then (double side deduction is applied)

 

S2. Ans.(d)

Sol.

Root slabs, floors, D.P.C, form work are measured in terms of m².

 

S3. Ans.(b)

Sol.

Damp proof course (D.P.C) measured in terms of m².

 

S4. Ans.(c)

Sol.

Unit weight of R.C.C. = 2500 kg/m³

Unit weight of plain cement concrete = 2400 kg/

 

S5. Ans.(d)

Sol.

Generally, the brick work is measured in terms of m³. but in case of honey comb brick work, brick flat soling, half brick wall or partition wall then, it is measured in m².

 

S6. Ans.(d)

Sol.

Quantity of steel (in kg.) per meter length is given by =

Where d = diameter of steel rod (in mm.)

L = length (in m.)

M = Quantity of steel (in kg.)

Now =

= 0.00618×(10)²

= 0.618 ≃ 0.62 kg

 

S7. Ans.(d)

Sol.

Reinforcement of R.C.C. works measured in terms of per quintal.

 

S8. Ans.(a)

Sol.

Broken glass coping measured in terms of square meter while reinforced brick work measured in terms of cubic meter.

 

S9. Ans.(d)

Sol.

The unit of measurement for mass concrete is cubic meter.

 

S10. Ans.(a)

Sol.

Degree of accuracy taken in-

(a) The correct volume is measured nearest up to = 0.01 m³.

(b) The correct area is measured nearest up to = 0.01 m².

(c) The length, width and depth are measured nearest up to = 0.01m.

 

QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (6-MAY-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering

Exam: UPSSSC-JE

Topic: Building Construction Technology

 

 

Each question carries 1 mark

Negative marking: 1/4 mark

Time: 10 Minutes

 

Q1. The distemper is used to coat:

(a) External concrete surface

(b) interior surface not exposed to weather

(c) Woodwork

(d) Compound walls

 

 

Q2. The most commonly used base for timber painting is

(a) Red lead

(b) Zinc white

(c) White lead

(d) Titanium white

 

 

Q3. The ingredient of paint which are used to hide the surface irregularities and imparts color is known as__________.

(a) Adultrants

(b) Drier

(c) Pigments

(d) Solvents

 

 

Q4. The ultimate tensile strength of the structural mild steel is:

(a) 160 N/mm²

(b) 260 N/mm²

(c) 420 N/mm²

(d) 520 N/mm²

 

 

Q5. The small area on painted surface enclosed by hair line cracks are known as:

(a) Blistering

(b) Crazing

(c) Wrinkling

(d) Chalking

 

 

Q6. Bakelite is a/an

(a) insulator

(b) semiconductor

(c) high resistance conductor

(d) Low resistance conductor

 

 

Q7. For manufacturing colored glass, the coloring pigments are added in the glass at the stage of

(a) Raw material mixing

(b) Fusion

(c) Melting

(d) Finishing

 

 

Q8. Which of the following quality of timber can improved using Abel’s process?

(a) Durability

(b) Fire Resistance

(c) chemical resistance

(d) Strength

 

 

Q9. The defect in timber that causes longitudinal separation of woods between the annular rings is known as___________.

(a) Knots

(b) Rind gall

(c) Shakes

(d) Twisted fibers

 

Q10. In which of the following direction the strength of timber is maximum?

(a) Parallel to grains

(b) 45° to grains

(c) Perpendicular to grains

(d) Same in all directions

 

 

 

 

Solutions

 

S1. Ans.(b)

Sol. Distemper is used to coat interior surface not exposed to weather. It is made with base as white chalk and thinner as water.

 

S2. Ans.(c)

Sol. White lead is used as base for timber painting.

 

S3. Ans.(c)

Sol. Pigments is used to hide the surface irregularities and imparts desired color to paints.

 

S4. Ans.(c)

Sol.

 

S5. Ans.(c)

Sol. Wrinkling These are the hair line cracks on small area of painted surface.

 

S6. Ans.(a)

Sol. Bakelite is a type of plastic which is used as non-conductive material.

 

S7. Ans.(b)

Sol. Color pigment is added in the manufacturing of glass at the stage of fusion.

S8. Ans.(b)

Sol. Timber surface is coated with solution of sodium silicate  which increase the resistance against fire. This process is called sir Abel’s process.

S9. Ans.(c)

Sol. Shakes  It is longitudinal cracks which partially or completely separates the fibers.

(a) Heart shakes  cracks run from pith to sapwood.

(b) Cup shakes  Appears as partly or completely separates annual rings from one another.

(c) Ring shakes  Appears as completely separates annual rings.

(d) Star shakes  cracks run from bark to sap wood.

S10. Ans.(a)

Sol. if applied load is parallel to grains then the strength of timber is maximum.

 

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING (28-APRIL-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UKSSSC-JE
Topic: Environmental Engineering

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. What does physical characterization of waste water include?
(a) Colour
(b) Odour
(c) Temperature
(d) All of these

Q2. A waste water sample of 2 ml is made up to 300 ml is BOD with distilled water Initial DO of the sample is 8mg/l and after 5 days it is 28mg/l. What is its BOD?
(a) 894 mg/l
(b) 900 mg/l
(c) 300 mg/l
(d) 1200 mg/l

Q3. The two mains gases obtained from anaerobic decomposition are –
(a) Ammonia and CO_2
(b) CO_2 and CH_4
(c) CH_4 and Hydrogen sulphide
(d) Ammonia and CO_4

Q4. The dissolved oxygen in stream is maximum at –
(a) Noon
(b) Morning
(c) Midnight
(d) Same throughout the day

Q5. Unit of deoxygenation constant is
(a) Per day
(b) Per hour
(c) ppm
(d) mg/L

Q6. The correct relationship between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and, chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by
(a) TOD>BOD>COD
(b) TOD>COD>BOD
(c) COD>BOD>TOD
(d) BOD>COD>TOD

Q7. Facultative bacteria are those which:
(a) Can survive with or without free oxygen
(b) Flourish and thrive in the absence of free oxygen
(c) Require oxygen for their survival
(d) None of the above

Q8. Standard B. O. D. is measured at
(a) 20°C – 1 day
(b) 25°C – 3 day
(c) 20° C – 5 day
(d) 30° C – 5 day

Q9. Which bacteria is used to convert ammonia to Nitrate?
(a) Coliphage
(b) Nitrosomonas
(c) Nitrobacter
(d) E – Coli

Q10. BOD (Bio Chemical Oxygen Demand) of safe drinking water must be:
(a) 0
(b) 50 ppm
(c) 100 ppm
(d) 200 ppm

Solutions

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. The physical characteristics of waste water is following.
Colour
Odour
Temperature
Suspended solids
Turbidity

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Given, volume of diluted sample = 300 ml.
Initial volume of test sample = 2 ml.
Initial dissolved oxygen (DOi)= 8 mg/l
Final dissolved oxygen (DO_F)= 2 mg/l.
▭(BOD=(DOi-DO_F )×Dilution factor)
Dilution factor = (volume of diluted sample)/(Initial volume of test sample)
= 300/2
= 150
BOD= (8-2) ×150
= 900 mg/l.

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. Gases evolved from anaerobic decomposition are Methane (CH_4) and carbon di-oxide (CO_2).

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. The dissolved oxygen in stream is maximum at noon.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. (i) Deoxygenation constant is given by-
▭(K_(D_(T°_C ) )=K_(D_(20°_c ) ) (1.047)^((T-20) ) ) (Unit→ per day)
Where
K_(D_(T°_c ) )= Deoxygenation constant at temperature T°_C
K_(D_(20°_c ) )= Deoxygenation constant at temperature 20°_C
(ii) Reoxygenation constant is given by
▭(K_(R_(T°_c ) )= K_(R_(20°_c ) ) (1.016)^((T-20) ) )
Where K_(R_(T°_c ) )= Reoxygenation constant at temperature T°_C
K_(R_(20°_c ) )= Reoxygenation constant at temperature 20°_C

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct relationship between TOD, COD and BOD is-
▭(TOD>COD>BOD)

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. Facultative bacteria are those who can survive with or without free oxygen.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. The amount of oxygen required for the decomposition of bio-degradable organic matter present in the system is referred as bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD). BOD during 5 days at 20°C is taken as standard BOD.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Nitrosomonas bacteria is used to convert ammonia to nitrate.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. Bio-chemical oxygen demand, (BOD) of safe drinking water must be zero.

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING(24-APRIL-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UKSSSC-JE
Topic: Soil Mechanics

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 cubic meter volume will be completely submerged in a fluid having specific gravity of ………………..
(a) 1
(b) 1.2
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.75

Q2. For perfectly dry soil, degree of saturation is:
(a) Zero
(b) 0-1
(c) 1
(d) Infinite

Q3. The relationship between air content of soil (a_c) and its degree of saturation (S_r) is expressed as
(a) a_c=1+S_r
(b) a_c=S_r-1
(c) a_c=1-S_r
(d) None of these

Q4. The meniscus and dispersing agent corrections, in the hydrometer analysis, respectively are
(a) Positive and negative
(b) Negative and positive
(c) Positive and positive
(d) Negative and negative

Q5. A moist sample of soil weight 24 grams in a tin lid. The tin lid above weight 14 grams. The over dry weight of tin and sample is 22 grams. What is the water content of the soil?
(a) 15.5%
(b) 39.5%
(c) 25%
(d) 60%

Q6. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of
(a) Plasticity index to consistency index
(b) Liquidity index to flow index
(c) Consistency index to liquidity index
(d) Plasticity index to flow index

Q7. If a soil sample is dried beyond its limit, this sample will show –
(a) No volume change
(b) Moderate volume change
(c) Low volume change
(d) large volume change

Q8. When the consistency index of a soil is equal to zero, then it is side to be at its
(a) Liquid limit
(b) Plastic limit
(c) Shrinkage limit
(d) Any one of the above limits

Q9. A negative value of the group index of a soil is reported as:
(a) A positive value of the same magnitude dropping the negative sign.
(b) Zero
(c) negative value, as GI may be negative.
(d) Gl is reported as non-existent.

Q10. Nuclear density gauge can be used for all the following purposes, except
(a) Moisture content
(b) Wet density
(c) Dry density
(d) Standard penetration reading

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. weight = 7.5 kg
Volume = 0.01 m³
Weight density (r) = 7.5/0.01
= 750 kg/m³
Specific gravity (G) = r/r_w =750/1000
= 0.75
S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. for perfectly dry soil degree of saturation equal to zero.
S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. ▭(S+a_c=1)
S → degree of saturation
a_c → air content
S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. the observed hydrometer reading is further being corrected by following –
Meniscus correction (Cm)
Temperature correction (C_T )
Dispersing agent correction (C_D )
→ Meniscus correction is always positive & dispersing agent correction is always negative
→ if temperature greater then 27°c then temperature correction is Positive and when temperature is less than 27°C then temperature correction is negative.
S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. weight of moist (soil +tin lid) = 24 gm
Weight of tin lid = 14gm.
Oven dry weight of (soil +tin lid) = 22 gm.
Weight of water = 24-22 = 2gm.
Weight of solid = 22 – 14 = 8 gm.
Water content = 2/8×100
= 25%
S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. ▭(Toughness index=(Plasticity index)/(flow index))
S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. if soil sample dried beyond its limit then no volume change in soil because water is replaced by air & volume of soil same
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Consistency index (I_C ) = (W_L-W)/(W_L-W_P )
If I_C=0
▭(W=W_L )
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. when value of group index is negative than we will assumed as zero.
S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. nuclear density gauge used in standard penetration reading.

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING (21-APRIL-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Shear reinforcement in a RCC beam is provided to resist
(a) Diagonal tension
(b) Bending stress
(c) Compressive stress
(d) Punching shear

Q2. Diagonal tension reinforcement is provided in a beam as
(a) longitudinal bars
(b) bent up bars and vertical stirrups
(c) helical reinforcement
(d) 90° bend at the bend of main bar

Q3. The bond strength of concrete increases with:
(a) The quantity of steel
(b) The tensile strength of steel
(c) The grade of concrete
(d) the quantity of concrete

Q4. Lap length in compression shall not be less than
(a) 15 ϕ
(b) 20 ϕ
(c) 24 ϕ
(d) 30 ϕ

Q5. If ‘d’ is the diameter of the steel bar, diameter of hook is _______
(a) 2d
(b) 4d
(c) 6d
(d) 8d

Q6. In reinforced concrete, lap splice should not be used for bars having diameter larger than
(a) 36 mm
(b) 25 mm
(c) 32 mm
(d) 30 mm

Q7. If nominal shear stress (τ_v) exceeds the design shear strength of concrete (τ_C), the shear reinforcement as per IS – 456 will be provided for shear equal to –
(a) τ_C
(b) τ_v
(c) τ_v- τ_C
(d) τ_v+ τ_C

Q8. The nominal shear stress (τ_v) in a reinforced concrete beam is given by
(a) bd/V_u
(b) V_u/(bd )
(c) V_u bd
(d) (V_u.b)/d

Q9. Diagonal tension in beam…………..
(a) Is maximum at neutral axis
(b) Decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis
(c) Increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis
(d) Remains the same in both above and below the neutral axis

Q10. In limit state method of design, for bars in compression the values of bond stress shall be:
(a) Decreased by 20%
(b) Increased by 25%
(c) Decreased by 25%
(d) Increased by 20%

Solutions

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. shear reinforcement in RCC beam is provided to resist diagonal tension. Stirrups is provided in the beam for shear reinforcement. At corner spacing between stirrups decreases and increase towards centre.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Diagonal tension reinforcement is provided in the form of-
Vertical stirrups
Inclined stirrups
Bent up bars.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. bond strength of concrete depends on-
Chemical adhesion
Frictional resistance
Mechanical resistance
→ if grade of concrete increases then friction b/w concrete & steel increases.
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. → (Lap length in flexure tension)/(Ld (or)30ϕ)_greater
→ (Lap length in Direct tension)/(2Ld (or)30ϕ)_greater
→ (Lap length in compression)/(Ld (or)24ϕ)_greater
S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. if ‘d’ is diameter of steel bar then diameter of hook is ‘4d’

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. if diameter of bar greater than 36 mm than welding should be done instead of lap splices.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. if nominal shear stress (τ_v ) exceceds the design shear strength of concrete (τ_c ) than shear reinforcement will be provided to resist (τ_v-τ_c )
Some important point in shear reinforcement
→ if τ_V> τ_cmax then redesign the section
→if τ_V<τ_c/2 then no shear reinforcement provided
→ if τ_V < τ_c minimum shear reinforcement provided
→ if τ_V > τ_c then design shear reinforcement to resist (τ_V-τ_c )
S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. Nominal Shear stress (τ_v )=V_u/(bd )
V_u→shear force
bd→cross sectional area.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. Diagonal tension in beam increase below neutral axis & decrease above neutral axis.

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. Table of bond stress in IS code given for plain bars in tension.
→ for HYSD bar in tension increase the value by 60%
→ for bar’s in compression the value is increased by 25%

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING (20-APRIL-2020)

Quiz: CIVIL ENGINEERING

Exam: TELANGANA-PSCM

Topic: CONCRTE TECHNOLOGY

 

Each question carries 1 mark

Negative marking: No negative marking

Time: 10 Minutes

 

Q1. Compaction of concrete helps in

(a) segregation of aggregates

(b) Removal of excess water

(c) increase of density

(d)addition of required air voids

 

 

Q2. Zinc or aluminum powders are used as ___________

(a) retarders

(b) accelerators

(c) air entraining agents

(d) plasticizers

 

 

Q3. Poisson’s ratio for concrete………

(a) Increase with richer mix

(b) Decrease with richer mix

(c) Remains constant

(d) none of these

 

 

Q4. In concrete, while hand mixing is adopted excess cement to be added is

(a) 4%

(b) 10%

(c) 14%

(d)20%

 

 

Q5. The process of applying cement mortar under pressure through a nozzle is called:

(a) Pressurizing

(b) Prestressing

(c) Guniting

(d)Screeding

 

Q6. The leaching action in concrete is the example of?

(a) crystallization

(b) creeping

(c) chemical reaction

(d) decomposition

 

 

Q7. The tie bars in a concrete pavement are provided in:

(a) Contraction joints

(b) Expansion joints

(c) Longitudinal joints

(d) Construction joints

 

 

Q8. Sugar when added to cement will act as:

(a) an accelerator

(b) A retarder

(c) A workability admixture

(d) An air entraining agent

 

 

Q9. Shrinkage in concrete increases its?

(a) bond strength

(b) flexural strength

(c) compressive strength

(d) tensile strength

 

 

Q10. Green concrete may be made by adding

(a) Chromium oxide

(b) Iron hydroxide

(c) Barium permanganate

(d) Iron oxide

 

 

 

SOLUTION

 

S1. Ans.(c)

Sol. compaction of concrete helps in removal of air voids and increase the density and strength of concrete.

 

S2. Ans.(c)

Sol. Zinc or aluminum powders are used as air entraining agents. Air entraining agents increase the workability of concrete.

 

S3. Ans.(a)

Sol. Poisson’s ratio of concrete is 0.15. It increase with increase in the richer mix.

 

S4. Ans.(b)

Sol. In concrete, while hand mixing the excess cement to be added is 10%.

 

S5. Ans.(c)

Sol. The process of applying cement mortar under pressure through a nozzle is called Guniting . The machine which is used for guniting is called cement gun. It apply a pressure of 2.5 kg/cm² – 3.5 kg/cm² through nozzle.

 

S6. Ans.(d)

Sol.

 

S7. Ans.(c)

Sol. The tie bars in concrete pavement are provided in Longitudinal joints.

 

S8. Ans.(b)

Sol. Sugar when added to cement will act as a retarder.

 

S9. Ans.(a)

Sol. Shrinkage in concrete increases its bond strength.

 

S10. Ans. (a)

Sol. Green concrete may be made by adding Chromium oxide.

 

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING (16 -APRIL- 2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UKSSSC-JE
Topic: Environmental Engineering

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. If the pH of the water is more than 8.5, then which of the following chloramines will be
(a) Only monochloramine
(b) Only dichloramine
(c) Only trichloramine
(d) Both monochloramine and dichloramine
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q2. Which of the following is the process of removal of permanent hardness of water?
(a) Boiling of water
(b) Zeolite process
(c) Filtration process
(d) Lime treatment
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q3. The most common cause of acidity in water is
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Calcium
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q4. The acceptable limit of total hardness (CaCO₃) as per the Indian standard is:
(a) 100
(b) 250
(c) 150
(d) 200
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q5. The maximum permissible limit of Chlorides (mg/l) in potable water, in absence of an alternate source is:
(a) 1000
(b) 750
(c) 250
(d) 500
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q6. Which of the following is an objective of aeration of water?
(a) To increase the carbon dioxide content of water
(b) To preserve hydrogen sulphide
(c) To remove tastes and odours from the gases produced due to organic decomposition
(d) to decrease the dissolved oxygen content of the water
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q7. The alum added as coagulant in water treatment functions better when the raw water is:
(a) Acidic with high turbidity.
(b) Alkaline with high turbidity.
(c) Neutral with low turbidity.
(d) Acidic with low turbidity.
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q8. A water treatment plant treats 6000 m³ of water per day. If it consumes 20 kg chlorine per day, then the chlorine dosage would be
(a) 3.00 mg/l
(b) 3.75 mg/l
(c) 4.25 mg/l
(d) 3.33 mg/l
L1Difficulty 4
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q9. Mostly used coagulant in treatment of water is:
(a) Chlorine
(b) Alum
(c) Lime
(d) Bleaching powder
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q10. Calculate detention time of the tank whose breadth is 2 m, length is 4 m and depth is 2.5m. the rate of flow is 4 x 10³ liters per hour
(a) 5 hours
(b) 4 hours
(c) 5.5 hours
(d) 2.5 hours
L1Difficulty 4
QTags Environmental Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Solutions
S1. Ans.(a)
Sol.
pH value Chloramine
> 7 Monochloramine
4-7 Dichloramine
1-3 Tri-chloramine

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. permanent hardness of water is removed by zeolite process. zeolite is a natural or synthetic cation or base exchange hydrated silicate of aluminium & sodium.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. the acidity in water due to the presence of carbon di-oxide

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. the acceptable limit of total hardness as per Indian standard is 200 mg/l and cause of rejection is 600 mg/l.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. the permissible limit of chlorides content in drinking water is 250 mg/l. and maximum permissible limit is 1000 mg/l.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. in aeration method, the water is brought in intimate contact with air which removes undesirable gases (like CO_2,H_2 S), tastes, odurs, volatile liquid and dissolved mineral (like iron and manganese) from water.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. the alum is added when the raw water is alkaline with high turbidity. It reacts with alkaline present in water and leads to the formation of sticky gelatinous precipitate of aluminium hydroxide.

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. Quantity of water treated per day = 6000 m³
Quantity of chlorine consumed per day = 20 kg.
Chlorine dosage = (Consumed chlorine per day)/(Quantity of water treated per day)
= (20×10^6 mg.)/(6000× 10^3 l.)
= 3.33 mg/l.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Alum is mostly used coagulant in treatment of water. It reacts with alkalinity present in water and leads to the formation of sticky gelatinous precipitate of aluminium hydroxide.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. Given,
Length (L) = 4m.
Breadth (B) = 2 m.
Depth (D) = 2.5 m.
Discharge (Q) = 4 × 10³ l/hour
Detention time of tank (t_d) =?
t_d = (Volume of tank (V))/(Discharge (Q) )
= (4×2×2.5 (m^3 ))/(4×10^3×10^(-3) (m^3 \/hour) )
= 5 hours.

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING ( 14- April -2020

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPPSC-AE
Topic: Strength of Material

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/3 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. In case of principal axis of a section
(a) sum of moment of inertia is zero
(b) difference of moment of inertia is zero
(c) product of moment of inertia is zero
(d) None of these
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q2. For a beam, the term M/EI is:
(a) Stress
(b) Rigidity
(c) Curvature
(d) Shear force
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q3. If a ductile material is subjected to a unidirectional tensile force, then to avoid shear failure, the material should have its shear strength at least equal to
(a) its tensile strength
(b) Half the tensile strength
(c) Its compressive strength
(d) Twice the tensile strength
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q4. Find the tensile stress of a mild steel rod of 18mm diameter. Given: ultimate load = 9.0 ton.
(a) 0.03 Ton/sq.mm
(b) 0.02 Ton/sq.mm
(c) 0.05 Ton/sq.mm
(d) 0.06 Ton/sq.mm
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q5. Beam of uniform strength means
(a) A beam with uniform cross section
(b) A beam subject to same moment throughout
(c) A beam in which maximum bending stress is same at all sections
(d) A beam with same maximum shear stress at all section
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q6. A column that fails due to direct stress, is called:
(a) short column
(b) long column
(c) weak column
(d) medium column
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q7. The angle of twist proportional to twisting moment.
(a) Directly
(b) Inversely
(c) (A) and (B) both
(d) None of these
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q8. Which of the following structural member resist torsion?
(a) Shafts
(b) Fixed beams
(c) Continuous beams
(d) Columns
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q9. In a Mohr’s circle of σ-τ plane (σ = normal stress, τ = shear stress), the vertical diameter represents
(a) Maximum shear stress
(b) Maximum normal stress
(c) Principal stress
(d) Minimum normal stress
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q10. Shear span is defined as the zone where:
(a) bending moment is zero
(b) shear force is zero
(c) shear force is constant
(d) bending moment is constant
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Strength of Material
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. An object rotating about an axis, the resistance of a body to accelarate is called inertia of mass. In case of principal axis of a section the product of moment of Inertia is zero.
S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. By Bending equation
M/I=σ/y=E/R
M/I=E/R
M/EI=1/R
Curvature = 1/R
S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. if ductile material is subjected to a unidirectional tensile force, then to avoid shear failure material should have its shear strength is twice the tensile strength.

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. Diameter = 18 mm
Ultimate load = 9.0 ton
Tensile stress = (9.0 ton)/(π/4×18²)
= 0.035 ton/mm²
S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Beam of uniform strength mean’s maximum bending stress is same at all section because section modules is inversely proportional to bending stress of beam.
M/I=σ/y
M/Z=σ
M= σ.Z

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. The short column fail’s primarily due to direct stress because in short column the buckling stresses are very small compared to direct stresses.
S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. T/J=τ/R=Gθ/L
T α θ
S8. Ans. (a)
S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. In Mohr circle vertical axis represent shear stress & Horizontal axis represent normal stress so the vertical diameter of circle represents maximum shear stress.
S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Shear span is the distance from the point of application of concentrated force to its respective reaction force. throughout shear span the shear force is constant.
“Shear span is defined as the zone where shear force is constant.”

QUIZ:CIVIL ENGINEERING (11-APRIL-2020)

Quiz: CIVIL ENGINEERING
Exam: TELANGANA-PSCM
Topic: L.S.M. & W.S.M.

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: No negative marking
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. What shall be the total strain in Fe 415 grade steel corresponding to the stress of 0.87 fy?
(a) 0.0035
(b) 0.0038
(c) 0.002
(d) 0.004
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q2. Stress-strain curve of concrete is
(a) a perfect straight line upto failure
(b) straight line upto 0.002 strain value and the parabolic upto failure
(c) hyperbolic upto 0.002 strain value and a straight line upto failure
(d) parabolic upto 0.002 strain value and a straight line upto failure
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q3. The factor of safety for steel as compared to concrete is ……………
(a) Higher
(b) Same
(c) Lower
(d) None of these
L1Difficulty 1
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q4. According to Whitney’s theory, ultimate strain of concrete is assumed to be
(a) 0.03%
(b) 0.1%
(c) 0.3%
(d) 1%
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q5. In limit state of collapse against flexure, the maximum strain in tension reinforcement at failure shall not be less than
(a) 0.002
(b) 0.002 + fy/Es
(c) 0.002 + fy/(0.87 Es )
(d) 0.002+fy/(1.15 Es )
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q6. Flexural collapse in over reinforced beams is due to
(a) primary compression failure
(b) secondary compression failure
(c) primary tension failure
(d) bound failure
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q7. Equivalent area of a reinforced cement concrete section is:
(a) m Ac+Asc
(b) Ac+m Asc
(c) Ac+Asc
(d) (Ac+m Asc ) σc
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q8. Minimum tension steel in RCC beam needs to be provided to:
(a) control excessive deflection
(b) control surface cracks
(c) prevent sudden failure
(d) none of the above
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q9. As per the working stress method of reinforced concrete design, if a concrete has permissible compressive stress of p, then the modular ratio is approximately given as:
(a) 93/p
(b) 140/p
(c) 210/p
(d) 280/p
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q10. Generally, strength of concrete is considered negligible/ very low in
(a) Compression
(b) Tension
(c) Fatigue
(d) None of the above
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Strain in HYSD bars (fe415)
=0.002+0.87fy/Es
=0.002+(0.87×415)/(2×10^5 )⇒0.0038
Strain in mild steel = (0.87×fy)/Es
=(0.87×250)/(2×105)=0.00108

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol.

According to IS. Code stress strain curve is parabola up to 0.002 then straight line
Up to failure.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. factor of safety of steel ⇒1.15
Factor of safety of concrete ⇒ 1.5
→ Due to variability in strength of concrete due to poor quality control, poor work man ship etc, higher factor of safety is given for concrete in comparison to steel.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. According to Whitney’s theory, ultimate strain of concrete is 0.003 (0.3%)

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. maximum strain in tension reinforcement
Steel grade Strain
Fe-250 0.87fy/Es
Fe-415 0.002+0.87fy/Es
Fe-500 0.002 + 0.87fy/Es
For HYSD bar’s maximum strain in tension Reinforcement
=▭(0.002+0.87fy/Es )
Or
=▭(0.002+fy/(1.15 Es ))

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. flexure collapse in over reinforced beams is due to primary compression failure.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Equivalent area of reinforced cement concrete
▭(A=Ac+m.Asc)
Ac→Area of concrete
Asc→ Area of steel

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. → Minimum reinforcement provided in beam to avoid any possibility of sudden failure due to over loading.
→ Maximum reinforcement is restricted because it result in congession effect proper compaction & placement of concrete.

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. modular ratio (m) =280/3σcbc
▭(σcbc=p)
M=280/3p
▭(m=93/p)

S10. Ans.(c) → The strength of concrete in fatigue is negligible.
→ Strength of concrete in tension is 10 to 15% of compressive strength.

QUIZ:CIVIL ENGINEERING (9-april-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Permeability of Soil

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Darcy’s law is not applicable for flow in –
(a) Fine sand
(b) Clays
(c) Silts
(d) Gravels
L1Difficulty 1
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q2. A flow net may be utilized for the determination of:
(a) Hydrostatic pressure only
(b) Seepage only
(c) Exit gradient only
(d) All of the above
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q3. If permeability of a soil at the void ratio of e_1 and e_2 are k_1 and k_2 then which of the following relation is correct?
(a) k_1/ k_2=(1+e_1 ) / (1+e_2)
(b) k_1/ k_2=(1-e_1) / (1-e_2)
(c) k_1/ k_2=e_1 / e_2
(d) None of these
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q4. If the coefficient of permeability for the soil is 10^(-7)cm/sec, then the soil can be classified as
(a) clay
(b) silt
(c) sand
(d) gravel
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q5. The constant head permeameter is suitable for:
(a) Silty soil
(b) Organic soil
(c) Coarse grained soils
(d) Clay
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q6. A soil has a discharge velocity of 6 × 10^(-7) m/s and void ratio of 0.5. What is its seepage velocity?
(a) 3 × 10^(-7) m/s
(b) 6 × 10^(-7) m/s
(c) 12 × 10^(-7) m/s
(d) 18 × 10^(-7) m/s
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q7. The property of a soil which permits water to percolate through it, is called
(a) Capillarity
(b) Consolidation
(c) Permeability
(d) Moisture content
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q8. A fine grained soil has:
(a) Low permeability and high compressibility
(b) High permeability and low compressibility
(c) Low permeability and low compressibility
(d) High permeability and high compressibility
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q9. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick sand condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.8m, specific gravity 2.65 and void ratio 0.65 is equal to:
(a) 1.0 meter
(b) 1.2 meter
(c) 1.6 meter
(d) 1.8 meter
L1Difficulty 4
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q10. Coefficient of permeability of soil
(a) Does not depend upon temperature
(b) Increases with increase in temperature
(c) Increases with decreases in temperature
(d) None of the above
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Geo Tech Engineering
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. Darcy law – For laminar flow is saturated soil mass velocity is directly proportional to its hydraulic gradient.
▭(V α i )
▭(V α ki )
K → coefficient of permeability
→ Darcy law is not applicable for flow of gravels. Because in gravel flow is not laminar.

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. Application of flow net –
Seepage discharge
Seepage pressure
Hydrostatic pressure
Exit gradient

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. according to kozney karman equation
Permeability (k) =1/Kk (r_w/μ)(e^3/(1+e)) d^2
▭(k α e^2 )
▭(K_1/K_2 α (e_1^2)/(e_2^2 ))

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Soil Coefficient of permeability (Cm/sec)
Gravel
Sand
Silt
Clay > 1
1 – 10^(-3)
10^(-3)- 10^(-6)
< 10^(-6)

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. the constant head parameter is suitable for determination of permeability in coarse grained soil.
▭(K=2.303 aL/At log_10 h_1/h_2 )

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. discharge velocity (V) = 6 × 10^(-7) m/s
Void ratio (e) = 0.5
Porosity (n) = e/(1+e)
= 0.5/(1+0.5)
= 0.5/1.5
=0.33
Seepage velocity (V_s ) = V/n
=(6×10^(-7))/0.33
V_s=18.18× 10^(-7) m/sec

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. the property of a soil which permits water to percolate through it is called permeability.
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. fine grained soil has low permeability & high compressibility.
S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. thickness (t) = 1.8 m
G = 2.65
Void ratio (e) = 0.65
For quick sand condition –
Critical hydraulic gradient (i_c ) = (G-1)/(1+e)
(G-1)/(1+e)=∆h/t
(2.65-1)/(1+0.65)=∆h/1.8
1.65/1.65=∆h/1.8
▭(∆h=1.8 meter)
S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. Coefficient of permeability of soil is directly proportional to temperature

QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING ( 8-APRIL-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Building Material

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Poisson’s Ratio of Concrete?
(a) 0.1 to 0.3
(b) 0.3 to 0.4
(c) 0.35 to 0.45
(d) 0.5 to 0.1
L1Difficulty 1
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q2. Elastic modulus of concrete as per IS 456 : 197.
(a) 5700√fck
(b) 5000√fck
(c) 4500√fck
(d) 3000√fck
L1Difficulty 1
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q3. Which constituent of good brick earth added in small quantity during the manufacturing of bricks, to give yellow into brick’s and decrease shrinkage?
(a) Oxide of iron
(b) Silica
(c) Magnisia
(d) Alumina
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q4. Which one of the following is not mechanical property of brick’s?
(a) Modulus of rupture
(b) Texture
(c) Tensile strength
(d) Fire resistance
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q5. Alumina content in a good brick earth must be at least.
(a) 50%
(b) 35%
(c) 20%
(d) 40%
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q6. Minimum Curing Period for lime mortar:
(a) 3 day’s
(b) 7 day’s
(c) 10 day’s
(d) 14 day’s
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q7. What is the final setting time of rapid Hardening Cement?
(a) 300 min.
(b) 450 min.
(c) 550 min.
(d) 600 min.
L1Difficulty 1
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q8. The piece of sawn timber whose dimensions do not exceed 5 cm either in breadth or in thickness is known as :
(a) Baulk
(b) Plank
(c) Scantling
(d) Batten
L1Difficulty 3
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q9. The paint which has high reflective property is :
(a) Cellulose paint
(b) Casein paint
(c) Bronze paint
(d) Enamel paint
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

Q10. Bulking is:
(a) increase in volume of sand due to moisture which keeps sand particles apart.
(b) Increase in density of sand due to impurities like clay, organic matter.
(c) Ramming of sand so that it occupies minimum volume.
(d) compacting of sand
L1Difficulty 2
QTags Building Construction Technology
QCereator Anubhav Gupta

 

Solutions

S1. Ans.(a)

S2. Ans.(a)

S3. Ans.(c)

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Texture of bricks is not mechanical property.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Silica → 50% to 60%
Alumina → 20% to 30%
Lime → 2% to 5%
Oxide of Iron → 3% to 5%
Magnesium → 1%

S6. Ans.(b)

S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. Initial setting time of rapid Hardening cement = 30 min and Final setting time = 600 min.

S8. Ans.(d)

S9. Ans.(c)

S10. Ans.(a)