# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (27-10-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: SSC-JE
Topic: Transportation Engineering

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The target of achieving an overall density of road length in third twenty-year road Development Plan (1981-2001) was
(a) 32 km /100km²
(b) 45.7 km /100km²
(c) 82 km /100km²
(d) 100 km /100km²

Q2. The design value of stopping sight distance for a two-lane, two way traffic would be; –
(a) Half the stopping sight distance
(b) Equal to stopping sight distance
(c) Twice the stopping sight distance
(d) Three times the stopping sight distance

Q3. The IRC recommendation for ruling design speed on a national highway, in plain terrain, is
(a) 50 km/h
(b) 75 km/h
(c) 100 km/h
(d) 125 km/h

Q4. At sharp horizontal curve of highways of radius ‘R’ (in metres), the percentage reduction in gradient provided to compensate the loss of traction force due to curvature is:
(a) 50/R
(b) 75/R
(c) 100/R
(d) None of these

(a) 1 IN 15
(b) 1 IN 20
(c) 1 IN 5
(d) 1 IN 25

Q6. Annual average daily traffic is obtained by determining average daily traffic volume recorded for
(a) 302 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 24 months
(d) 10 years

Q7. Expression for stopping distance (SD) for a vehicle is:
(a) SD=vt+v^2 \/2gf
(b) SD=vt+v^2 \/4gf
(c) SD=vt+v^2 \/8gf
(d) SD=vt+v^2 \/16gf
Where
V= speed of vehicle, t = reaction time of drive, f = design coefficient of friction

Q8. The road intersection where all converging vehicles are forced to move round a large central island in one direction before they can weave out of traffic flow into their respective directions radiating from the central island is called as __________.
(a) Clover leaf
(b) Staggered intersection
(c) Rotary intersection
(d) Skewed intersection

Q9. Scientific planning of transportation system and mass transit facilities in cities should be based on
(a) Spot speed data
(b) Origin and destination data
(c) Traffic volume data
(d) Accident data

Q10. The tie bars in a concrete pavement are provided in: –
(a) Contraction joints
(b) Expansion joints
(c) Longitudinal joints
(d) Construction joints

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. (a) In first 20-year road plan (1943-1963), road density is 16 km/100 km²
(b) In second 20-year road plan (1961-1981), road density is 32 km/100 km²
(c) In third 20-year road plan (1981-2001), road density is 82 km/100 km²

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. As per IRC, The design value of stopping right distance (SSD) –
(a) for single lane one way = SSD
(b) for single lane two way = 2SSD
(c) for two lane two way = SSD

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Design speed in km/hr-

Class of road Plain terrain Rolling terrain
Ruling Minimum Ruling Minimum
NH/SH (National or state Highway) 100 80 80 65
MDR (Major district roads) 80 65 65 50
ODR (other district roads 65 50 50 40
VR (village roads) 50 40 40 35

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. At sharp horizontal curve of highways of radius ‘R’, the percentage reduction in gradient provided to compensate the loss of traction force due to curvature is 75/R. Grade compensation is applicable for horizontal curve with gradient.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. As per IRC, the maximum gradient is taken as follows-
(i) for plain roads = 1 in 20 or 5%.
(ii) for Hill roads = 1 in 15 or 6.67%.

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. Annual average daily traffic is obtained by determining average daily traffic volume recorded for 365 days.
Annual Average daily traffic (AADT) is given by –

▭(AADT=(Total number of vehicle passing accross a section in a year )/365)

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. Stopping sight distance for a vehicle is given by-
SSD=v.t+v^2/2gf
v = velocity (m/sec)
f = longitudinal friction
t = perception reaction time

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. The road intersection when all converging vehicles are forced to move round a large central island in the one direction before they can weave out to traffic flow into their respective directions radiating from the central island is called as rotary intersection.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Scientific planning of transportation system and mass transit facilities in cities should and mass transit facilities in cities should be based on origin and destination data.

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Tie bars in a concrete pavement are provided in Longitudinal joints. Tie bars are about 12.5mm in diameter and between 0.6 to 1.0 m long.

# QUIZ: CIVIL ENGINEERING (24-10-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: SSC-JE
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Muller Breslau principle in structural analysis is used for
(a) drawing ILD for any force function
(b) writing virtual work equation
(d) none of these

Q2. Influence line diagrams can be drawn for
(a) only beams
(b) Beams arches, trusses etc.
(c) Only arches
(d) Only trusses

Q3. The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of-
(a) Rivet hole
(b) Rivet measured before driving
(c) Rivet measured after driving
(d) None of the above

Q4. The effective length of a weld, is taken as the actual length
(a) Minus the size of weld
(b) Minus twice the size of weld
(c) Plus the size of weld
(d) Plus twice the size of weld

Q5. Peak hour factor is expressed in percentage of
(c) PCU
(d) DF

Q6. According to Reyve’s formula for estimating floods, the peak discharge is proportional to
(a) A
(b) A^(2/3)
(c) A^(3/4)
(d) A^(1/2)

Q7. Strut is defined as a
(a) Member of a structure which carries a tensile load
(b) Member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load
(c) Vertical member of a structure which carries a tensile load
(d) Vertical member of a structure which carries no load

Q8. Which of the following fluids can be classified as non-newtonian?
(a) kerosene oil Diesel Oil
(b) Human blood and Toothpaste
(c) Diesel oil and Water
(d) Kerosene oil and Water

Q9. A stream function is
(a) defined only for incompressible flow
(b) defined for irrotational flow
(c) defined when the flow is continuous
(d) defined only for steady flow

Q10. An imaginary tangent at a point which shows the direction of velocity of a liquid particle at that point is
(a) path line
(b) stream line
(c) streak line
(d) vortex line

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Muller Breslau principle in structure analysis is used for drawing influence line diagram for any force function such as shear force, bending moment or any reactive force and moment
S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. The influence line diagram is the graphical representation for reaction, shear force and bending moment due to moving load. It can be drawn for beams, arches, trusses etc.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of rivet hole.
In WSM
Nominal diameter (d) Gross diameter (do)
d ≤ 25 mm do = d + 1.5 mm
d > 25 mm do = d +2 mm

In LSM
Nominal diameter (d) Gross diameter (do)
d = 12mm to 14 mm do = d +1mm
d = 16mm to 24 mm do = d + 2 mm
d > 24 mm do = d + 2 mm

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Effective length of weld is equal to overall length of weld minus twice the size of weld.
▭(L_effective=L_overall-2S )
Where, S = size of weld

S5. Ans.(b)
sol. Peak hour factor is expressed in percentage of AADT; it is used in the design of transportation facilities and major projects.
S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. Peak flood discharge by Reyve’s formula-
Q=CA^(2/3)
A= area in km²
Q= Peak flood discharge (m^3/sec)
C= constant
Reyve’s formula is used for southern India catchments.
S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. Column is a special type of strut may be defined as vertical member subjected to axial compressive load.
S8. Ans. (b)
Sol.

→ Ideal plastic fluid – (Toothpaste)
S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. A stream function is defined only for incompressible flow. In stream function, the partial derivative with respect to any direction will give the velocity component at right angle to that direction.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. A path line may be defined as the line traced by a single fluid particle as it moves over a period of time, Thus a path line will show the direction of velocity of the same fluid particle at successive instants of time.

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (21-10-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: ssc-je
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/3 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The distemper is used to coat:
(a) External concrete surface
(b) interior surface not exposed to weather
(c) Woodwork
(d) Compound walls

Q2. The most commonly used base for timber painting is
(b) Zinc white
(d) Titanium white

Q3. The ingredient of paint which are used to hide the surface irregularities and imparts color is known as__________.
(b) Drier
(c) Pigments
(d) Solvents

Q4. The ultimate tensile strength of the structural mild steel is:
(a) 160 N/mm²
(b) 260 N/mm²
(c) 420 N/mm²
(d) 520 N/mm²

Q5. ‘Modulus of subgrade reaction is evaluated from.
(a) plate bearing test
(b) CBR test
(c) direct shear test
(d) Triaxial test

Q6. Select the strength parameter of concrete used in design of plain jointed cement pavement from the following choices.
(a) Tensile strength
(b) Compressive strength
(c) Flexure strength
(d) Shear strength

Q7. A two lane unrban road with one way traffic has a maximum capacity of 2000 vehicles/hour. Under the jam condition the average length occupied by the vehicle is 5.0 m. the speed versus density relationship is linear. For a traffic volume of 1000 vehicles/hour. The density (Vechicle/km) is.
(a) 70
(b) 62
(c) 60
(d) 57

Q8. The perpetration test for bitumen is conducted at a temperature of
(a) 60° C
(b) 37° C
(c) 25° C
(d) 50° C

Q9. The bowen ratio is defined as.
(a) Ratio of heat and vapour diffusivities
(b) proportionality content between vapour heat flux and sensible heat flux.
(c) Ratio of acts at evapotranspiration and potential evapotranspiration.
(d) Propotionality constant between heat energy used up in evaporation and the bulk radiation from a water body

Q10. Identify the false statement from the following the specific speed of the pump increses with.
(a) increases in shaft speed
(b) increases in discharge
(c) decreases in gravitational acceleration

Solutions

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Distemper is used to coat interior surface not exposed to weather. It is made with base as white chalk and thinner as water.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. White lead is used as base for timber painting.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Pigments is used to hide the surface irregularities and imparts desired color to paints.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. The plate bearing test is used to determine the supporting power of subgrade for used in pavement design. Plate bearing test was originally devised to find the modulus of subgrade reaction in the westergaards analysis for wheel load stress in cement concrete pavements.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol.
C=1000V/S
S=0.2 V+5.0
2000=(1000×V)/(0.2V+5)
400 V+10,000=1000 V
10,000=600 V
▭(V=16.66 m\/sec)
Traffic capacity = speed × density
1000=16.66×density
▭(density=60 Vechile\/km)

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. specific speed of a pump is given by,
▭(N_s=(N√Q)/(Hm)^(3\/4) )

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (14-10-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: upsssc-je
Topic: Soil Mechanics

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 cubic meter volume will be completely submerged in a fluid having specific gravity of ………………..
(a) 1
(b) 1.2
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.75

Q2. For perfectly dry soil, degree of saturation is:
(a) Zero
(b) 0-1
(c) 1
(d) Infinite

Q3. The relationship between air content of soil (a_c) and its degree of saturation (S_r) is expressed as
(a) a_c=1+S_r
(b) a_c=S_r-1
(c) a_c=1-S_r
(d) None of these

Q4. The meniscus and dispersing agent corrections, in the hydrometer analysis, respectively are
(a) Positive and negative
(b) Negative and positive
(c) Positive and positive
(d) Negative and negative

Q5. A moist sample of soil weight 24 grams in a tin lid. The tin lid above weight 14 grams. The over dry weight of tin and sample is 22 grams. What is the water content of the soil?
(a) 15.5%
(b) 39.5%
(c) 25%
(d) 60%

Q6. Which type of piles are driven at an inclination to resist large horizontal or inclined force?
(a) Compaction piles
(b) Batter piles
(c) Fender piles
(d) Sheet piles

Q7. A pycnometer is used to determine:
(a) Water content and voids ratio
(b) Specific gravity and dry density
(c) Water content and specific gravity
(d) Voids ratio and dry density

Q8. You are given a sample of soil containing coarse grains to determine its water content. What will you use for the purpose?
(a) Pycnometer
(b) Oven-drying method
(c) Calcium carbide method
(d) Alcohol method

Q9. If the undisturbed strength of a soil sample is 50 units while the remolded strength is 20 units, then what is the sensitivity of this soil?
(a) 1.25
(b) 0.4
(c) 2.5
(d) 2

Q10. Clay whose activity coefficient is more than 1.2 is termed as______.
(a) fine clay
(b) inactive clay
(c) active clay
(d) normal clay

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. weight = 7.5 kg
Volume = 0.01 m³
Weight density (r) = 7.5/0.01
= 750 kg/m³
Specific gravity (G) = r/r_w =750/1000
= 0.75
S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. for perfectly dry soil degree of saturation equal to zero.
S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. ▭(S+a_c=1)
S → degree of saturation
a_c → air content
S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. the observed hydrometer reading is further being corrected by following –
Meniscus correction (Cm)
Temperature correction (C_T )
Dispersing agent correction (C_D )
→ Meniscus correction is always positive & dispersing agent correction is always negative
→ if temperature greater then 27°c then temperature correction is Positive and when temperature is less than 27°C then temperature correction is negative.
S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. weight of moist (soil +tin lid) = 24 gm
Weight of tin lid = 14gm.
Oven dry weight of (soil +tin lid) = 22 gm.
Weight of water = 24-22 = 2gm.
Weight of solid = 22 – 14 = 8 gm.
Water content = 2/8×100
= 25%
S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. Batter pile – these are driven in inclined direction to prevent horizontal thrust or inclined forces.
S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. A pycnometer is a 900 ml flask. It is used to determine water content & specific gravity
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. if soil sample is coarse grained than for determining water content pycnometer is used.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. Sensitivity=(undisturbed strength)/(remalded strength)
St=50/20
▭(St=2.5 )

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Activity Disruption
< 0.75
0.75 to 1.25
> 1.25 Non active
Normal soil
Active

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (10-10-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPPSC
Topic: Miscellaneous

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/3 mark
Time: 15 Minutes

Q1. A doubly reinforcement beams are provided:
1. when depth of the section is restricted.
2. To reduce deflection of beam.
3. To reduce torsional moment.
Which of the above statement is correct?
(a) Statement 3 only
(b) Statement 2 only
(c) Statement 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Statement 1 only

Q2. In double riveted double covered butt joint, the strength of the joint per pitch length in shearing the rivets ‘n’ times the shear strength of one rivet in single shear, where n is equal to ______:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q3. A soil has 28 g of soil solids, 10 cu cm of voids, 9 g of water and specific gravity of soil grains of 2.7 consider the following statements in this regard:
1. The water content is 9/28×100%
2. The void ratio is (10 × 2.7)/28
3. Degree of saturation is 9/(10 ×2.7) × 100
4. The porosity is (10 × 2.7)/((28+10×2.7))
Of these statements :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Q4. Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS:800
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%

Q5. The minimum edge and end distance from the centre of any hole to the nearest flame-cut edge shall not be less than
(a) 1.5 times hole diameter
(b) 1.7 times hole diameter
(c) 2 times hole diameter
(d) 1.5 times bolt/rivet diameter

Q6. Air permeability test of cement is conducted to find the
(a) Ignition loss
(b) Specific gravity
(c) fineness
(d) unsoundness

Q7. Group symbols assigned to silty sand and clayey sand are respectively
(a) SS and CS
(b) SM and CS
(c) SM and SC
(d) MS and CS

Q8. A stream function is given by,
Ψ=2x^2 y+(x+1) y^2
The flow rate across a line joining points A (3.0) and B (0,2) is.
(a) 0.4 unit
(b) 1.1 unit
(c) 4 unit
(d) 5 unit

Q9. Both Reynolds and Froude numbers assume significance in one of the example.
(a) Motion of submarine at large depths.
(b) Motion of ship in deep seas
(c) crushing of a missile in Air.
(d) flow over spill way

Q10. A hydraulic turbine develops a power of 10^4 metric horse power while running at a speed of 100 revolutions per minutes, under a head of 40m. its specific speed is nearest to one of the following.
(a) 100
(b) 628
(c) 528
(d) 310

SOLUTION
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. Double reinforced beam provided –
Depth of the beam restricted
Increasing moment carrying capacity.
Safety against reversal of stress.
Reduce deflection of beam.

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. Shearing strength of double rivet double cover butt joint.
P_S=2×(πd_O^2)/4×σ_SP×2
P_S=4×(πd_O^2)/4×σ_SP
▭(P_S=4×Strength of one rivet in single shear)
S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. Water content =(weight of water)/(weight of solids )×100=9/10×100%
Void ratio = V_V/V_s =10/(28/2.7)=(10 × 2.7)/28
Degree of saturation =V_w/V_V =9/10×100
Porosity = V_V/V=10/(28/2.7+10)=(10 × 2.7)/(28 + 10 × 2.7) Thus 1, 2, and 4 are correct

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. efficiency of a rivet joint per pitch length =
(P-d)/P×100
Minimum pitch (P) = 2.5d
Efficiency (η) = (2.5d-d)/2.5d
=1.5/2.5×100
=60%

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. According to IS800: 2007 recommendation.
→ minimum value of edge distance = 1.7 × diameter of hole
[In case of sheared or hand flamed out edges]

→ minimum edge and end distance shaft not be less than = 1.5 × diameter of hole
[In case of rolled machine flames (cut, sawn and planed edges]
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. air permeability test of cement is conducted to find the fineness of cement. It measures surface area.

S7. Ans.(c)

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Rate of flow is the difference in value of stream function at point A and B.
Q=|Ψ_A-Ψ_B |
Ψ_A=2×(3)^2×0+(3+1)×(0)^2=0
Ψ_B=2×(0)^2×2+(0+1)×(2)^2=4
Q=|0-4|=4 unit

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. Specific speed is given by –
Na=(N√P)/H^(5\/4)
Na=(100×√(10^4 ))/(40)^(5\/4)
Na= =99.40≈100

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (07-10-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Environmental Engineering

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Water is considered ‘hard’, if its hardness is of the order of
(a) 50 ppm
(b) 100 ppm
(c) 200 ppm
(d) 300 ppm

Q2. Phenolphthalein indicator is used to determine the alkalinity above pH
(a) 8.3
(b) 7.0
(c) 6.5
(d) 4.5

Q3. Methemoglobinemia is caused due to drinking of water having excess of
(a) fluorides
(b) iron
(c) hardness
(d) nitrates

Q4. MPN Index is a measure of which one of the following
(a) B. O. D.
(b) Hardness
(c) D.O. content
(d) Coliform bacteria

Q5. Presence of which one of the following in water is the major cause of depression, paralysis, blindness and/or birth defects?
(b) Chromium
(c) Manganese
(d) Mercury

Q6. In the design of a sedimentation tank the essential factor to be considered is
(a) depth of tank
(b) turbidity of water
(c) concentration of suspended solids in the water

Q7. The rapid gravity filters, as compared to slow sand filters, have
(a) much smaller area
(b) more flexibility
(c) faster action
(d) all the above

Q8. Manholes are generally located
(a) at all changes of direction of sewer
(b) at all changes of gradient of sewer
(c) at all junctions of different sewers
(d) All of the above

Q9. BOD_5 represents 5 days-biochemical oxygen demand at a temperature of
(a) 0°C
(b) 20°C
(c) 30°C
(d) None of these

Q10. The ultimate BOD value of a waste
(a) increases with temperature
(b) decreases with temperature
(c) remains the same at all temperatures
(d) doubles with every 10°C rise in temperature

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. Water with hardness upto 75 ppm are considered soft while those with 200 ppm and above are considered hard.

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. Phenolphthalein turns water into pink. If pH is more than 8.3 at pH = 8.3, it changes the water from pink to colourless.

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. Methemoglobinemia or blue baby disease is caused due to nitrate concentration above 45 mg/l in water.

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. MPN (Most Probable Number) is used to measure total coliform in water sample.

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. Presence of chromium in water is the major cause of depression, paralysis, blindness and birth defect

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Surface loading of tank should be less than the setting velocity of discrete particles for effective sedimentation.

S7. Ans.(d)

S8. Ans.(d)

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. (BOD)_5 represent 5-days biochemical oxygen demand at a temperature of 20°C.

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Ultimate BOD represents the biodegradable organic matter, so it will remain unchanged.

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEER ( 29-Sep-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPPSC-AE
Topic: Miscellaneous

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/3 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. In Casagrande’s liquid limit device, the material of the test specimen is harder than the standard rubber. This hardness indicates that the liquid limit, plasticity index, flow index and toughness index, respectively, of the specimen, are
(a) more, less more and same
(b) same, less, same and more
(c) less, less, same and less
(d) less, same, less and more

Q2. What is the minimum value of test results (in N/mm²) for compressive strength compliance requirement for concrete M 20 as per codal provision?
(a) f_ck-1
(b) f_ck-5
(c) f_ck-3
(d) f_ck-4

Q3. Which one of the following is categorized as a long term loss of prestress in a prestressed concrete member
(a) Loss due to elastic shortening
(b) Loss due to friction
(c) Loss due to relaxation of strands-
(d) Loss due to anchorage slip.

Q4. If L_f is load factor S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the following:
(a) L_f=S×F
(b) L_f=S+F
(c) L_f=S-F
(d) L_f=F-S

Q5. Group symbols assigned to silty sand and clayey sand are respectively
(a) SS and CS
(b) SM and CS
(c) SM and SC
(d) MS and CS

Q6. The reduction coefficient of a reinforced concrete column with an effective length of 4.5 m and size 250×300 mm² us _______:
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.85
(c) 0.9
(d) 0.95

Q7. Both Reynolds and Froude numbers assume significance in one of the example.
(a) Motion of submarine at large depths.
(b) Motion of ship in deep seas
(c) crushing of a missile in Air.
(d) flow over spill way

Q8. If fineness modulus of a sand is 2.5, it is graded as
(a) coarse sand
(b) medium sand
(c) very fine sand
(d) fine sand

Q9. In a slab, the minimum reinforcement using steel of grade Fe 415 is –
(a) 0.12% of is gross sectional area
(b) 0.20% of is gross sectional area
(c) 0.15% of is gross sectional area
(d) 0.10% of is gross sectional area

Q10. If the maximum bending moment of a simply supported slab is M kg – cm, the effective depth of the slab is
(a) M/100Q
(b) M/(10√Q)
(c) √(M/Q)
(d) √(M/(100 Q))

SOLUTION
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. If the test specimen is harder than the standard rubber less number of blows will fill the groove for a given water content. In other words 25 number of blows will be required at less water content. So liquid limit and thereby plasticity index will be less. There will be no effect on flow index (I_f) Toughness index = I_p/I_f will also be less.
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. As per IS : 456 – 2000, the characteristic compressive strength compliance requirement are-
Grade of Concrete Individual test results (in N/mm²)
M 15 ≥ f_ck – 3
M 20 or above ≥ f_ck – 4
f_ck = Characteristic strength of concrete.

S3. Ans.(c)

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. Load factor = Shape factor × factor of safety
▭(L_F=S×F)
▭(Shape factor (S)=Z_P/Z_e )
Where Z_P = plastic section modulus
Z_e = Elastic section modulus
S5. Ans.(c)

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. reduction coefficient (Cr) = 1.25 – l_eff/(48.b)
Cr=1.25-4500/(48×250)
▭(Cr=0.875≈0.9)

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S.No. Type of sand Fineness modulus
1. Fine sand 2.2 – 2.6
2. Medium sand 2.6 – 2.9
3. Coarse sand 2.9 – 3.2
S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. Minimum reinforcement.
For mild steel bar → 0.15% of gross area
For HYSD bar → 0.12% of gross area

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. moment of resistance (M) = Qd² (N-mm)
M/(10×10) (kg-cm)=Qd^2
▭(d=√(M/100Q))

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (23-09-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: Assam -Psc
Topic: Strength of Material
Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: No negative marking
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. In the creep test, the following type of stress is applied to the specimen
(a) uniaxial compression
(b) uniaxial tension
(c) biaxial compression or tension
(d) alternating stress

Q2. A free bar of length ℓ is uniformly heated from 0°C a temperature t°C, α is the coefficient of linear expansion and E is the modulus of elasticity. The stress in the bar is
(a) α t E
(b) α t E/2
(c) zero
(d) None of these

Q3. If Poisson’s ratio for a material is 0.5, then the elastic modulus for the material is
(a) three times its shear modulus
(b) four times its shear modulus
(c) equal to its shear modulus
(d) indeterminate

Q4. The Poisson’s ratio of a material which has Young’s modulus of 120 GPa, and shear modulus of 50 GPa, is
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.4

Q5. Solid uniform metal bar of diameter D and length L is hanging vertically from its upper end. The elongation of the bar due to self weight is
(a) Proportional to L and inversely proportional to D²
(b) Proportional to L² and inversely proportional to D²
(c) Proportional to L but independent of D
(d) Proportional to L² but independent of D

Q6. The stress below which a material has a high probability of not failing under reversal of stress is known as
(a) tolerance limit
(b) elastic limit
(c) proportional limit
(d) endurance limit

Q7. In stress-strain curve, the area upto elastic limit stress indicates which mechanical property?
(a) Ductility
(b) Strength
(c) Resilience
(d) None of these

Q8. True stress σ is related with conventional stress σ_0 as
(a) σ/σ_0 =(1+ϵ)^2
(b) 〖σ/σ〗_0=1/(1+ϵ)^2
(c) 〖σ/σ〗_0=1/(1+ϵ)
(d) σ/σ_0 =1+ϵ

Q9. The radius of Mohr’s circle of stress of a strained element is 20 mm and minor principal tensile stress is 10 N/mm². The major principal stress is
(a) 30 N/mm²
(b) 50 N/mm²
(c) 60 N/mm²
(d) 100 N/mm²

Q10. The principal stresses σ_1,σ_2 and σ_3 at a point respectively are 80 MPa, 30 MPa and – 40 Mpa. The maximum shear stress is
(a) 25 MPa
(b) 35 MPa
(c) 55 MPa
(d) 60 MPa

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. In creep test uniaxial tension is applied to the specimen.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. The bar is free to move then there is no stress occur in the bar due to thermal expansion.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. E=2G(1+μ)
E=2G(1+0.5)
▭(E=3G)

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. E=120 GPa
G=50 GPa

E=2G(1+μ)
120=2×50(1+μ )

1+μ=120/100
▭(μ=0.2)

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Elongation of bar due to self weight
▭(∆L=(YL^2)/2E)
▭(∆L α L^2 )

S6. Ans.(d)

S7. Ans.(c)

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. ▭(σ/σ_0 =1/(1+ϵ))
σ- true stress
σ_0-conventional stress
ϵ=strain

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Radius of mohr circle =(σmax-σmin)/2
20=(σmax-10)/2
▭(σ_max=50N\/mm^2 )

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. σ_1=80 MPa
σ_2=30 MPa
σ_3=-40 MPa
Maximum shear stress =(σ_1-σ_3)/2
=(80-(-40))/2
=60MPa

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (18-09-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m³ at 50 N/cm² and a volume of 0.039 m³ at 150 N/cm². The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is:
(a) 400 N/cm²
(b) 4000 N/cm²
(c) 40000 N/cm²
(d) 40 N/cm²

Q2. The viscosity of a gas
(a) decreases with increase in temperature
(b) increases with increases in temperature
(c) is independent of temperature
(d) is independent of pressure for very high pressure intensities

Q3. One torr pressure is equivalent to:
(a) 1 atmosphere
(b) 1 mm of mercury
(c) 10 m of water
(d) 1 Pascal

Q4. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water will be equal to
(a) 1 Pa
(b) 98.1 Pa
(c) 981 Pa
(d) 9810 Pa

Q5. Which one of the following surveys is employed for collecting sufficient data in connection with sewage disposal and water supply works?
(a) Topographic survey
(c) Geodetic survey
(d) Cross-sectioning and profile leveling

Q6. In case of a direct vernier scale
(a) graduations increase in opposite direction in which graduations of the main scale increase
(b) smallest division is longer than smallest division of the main scale
(c) graduations increase in the same direction in which graduations of the main scale increase
(d) None of these

Q7. A line joining some fixed stations on main survey lines is
(a) Check line
(b) Base line
(c) Tie line
(d) Cross line

Q8. In a well conditions triangle, one angle should not be less than :
(a) 60°
(b) 50°
(c) 30°
(d) 45°

Q9. A substance bar can be used to determine :
(a) Horizontal angles
(b) Horizontal distances
(c) Vertical angles
(d) Horizontal and vertical distances

Q10. If the fore bearing of the line AB is 119°48’ then back baring is:
(a) 299° 48’
(b) 209°48’
(c) 119°48’
(d) 319°48’

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Bulk modulus
K = – ∆P/(∆V/V)
K= -[(0.04×[150-50])/(0.039-0.04)]=4000 N\/cm^2

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. As we know that
⇒ With increasing temp. viscosity of liquid decrease because as we increase the temperature which cause decreases the cohesive forces between modulus so that viscosity is decrease
⇒ with increasing temp. viscosity of gas increases because as we increase the temp. which cause increase the rate of molecules momentum transfer which is the main reason of viscous forces within the gases. So that viscosity in increase.

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. 760 torr = 1 atmospheric pressure
760 mm = 1 atmospheric pressure
i.e. 1 mm of mercury = 760 torr
it is on the name of Torricelli

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. Pressure (P) = ρ.gh
= 1000×9.81×1
= 9810 Pa.
S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Cross-sectioning and profile leveling survey is employed for collecting sufficient data in connection with sewage disposal and water supply works.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. Direct vernier – division which are slightly shorter than main scale. Reading increases in the direction of the main scale.
→ n division of vernier is equal to (n-1) division of main scale.
Retrograde vernier – Division which are slightly longer than main scale. Reading increases in a direction opposite to main scale. n division of vernier (n+1) division of main scale.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. A line joining some fixed stations on main survey line is tie line. Tie line is used to locate the interior details which are comparatively for away from the main survey line.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. In well condition triangle angle (θ) should be in range of 30° to 120°
▭(30≤θ≤120)
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. substance bar is used to measure 90° Angle in any point & drawing perpendicular by exterior point & also used to measure horizontal distance.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. fore bearing of line ‘AB’ = 119°48’
Fore baring is less than 180° so we calculate back bearing by adding 180°. If fore bearing greater than 180° than we subtract 180° from it.
Back bearing of line AB = 180°+〖119°48〗^’=〖299°48〗^’

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (16-09-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The best method of interpolation of contours in indirect method of contouring is by
(a) Computation
(b) Interpolation
(c) Imagination
(d) Estimation

Q2. The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1.5 : 2
(d) 2 : 1

Q3. A vehicle is travelling at 80 km per hour. Assuming that the driver’s perception time is 1.5 second and the reaction time is 0.5 second, what is the stopping distance on a dry level concrete pavement for which the coefficient of friction between the pavement and the tyre is 0.35?
(a) 116.4 mm
(b) 117.4 mm
(c) 115.4 mm
(d) 116.0mm

Q4. A vehicle has a wheel base of 5.5 m. What is the off-tracking while negotiating a curved path with a mean radius 30 m?
(a) 0.6
(b) 0.7
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.5

Q5. The stopping sight distance (SSD) for two-way traffic, with single lane, and the stopping distance (SD) are related as:
(a) SS D = S D
(b) SS D = 2 SD
(c) SS D = SD/2
(d) SS D = 4SD

Q6. Cross hairs in a surveying telescope are fitted
(a) in front of the eye piece
(b) in the objective glass
(c) at the centre of telescope
(d) in the optical centre of the eye piece

Q7. In a closed traverse, latitudes and departures of the sides were calculated and it was observed that
Σ Lattitude = 1.39
Σ Departure = –2.17
Calculate the length and bearing of the closing error.
(a) 2.577 m
(b) 2.97 m
(c) 3.25 m
(d) 4.35 m

Q8. The minimum length of a railway passenger platform should be
(a) 138 m
(b) 183 m
(c) 193 m
(d) 298 m

Q9. For Broad Gauge (B.G.) railway passenger platforms should not be
(a) Less than 305 m
(b) Greater than 305 m
(c) Less than 503 m
(d) Greater than 703 m

Q10. Radiation, intersection and resection are
(a) Compass surveying techniques
(b) Chain surveying techniques
(c) Levelling techniques
(d) Plane table surveying techniques

SOLUTION
S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Computation is the best method of interpolation of contours indirect method of contouring

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. The side slope of embankments for a railway tracks is 2 : 1

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. V = 80 Kmph
total reaction time t_R : 1.5 + 0.5 = 2 second
f = 0.35
S.S.D. = 0.278 × v × t_R + V^2/(254 (f))
= 0.278 × 80 × 2 + 80^2/(254 × 0.35)
= 116.47 m

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. Off tracking = l^2/2R
= (5.5)^2/(2 ×30)
= 0.504 m

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. The stopping sight distance for two way traffic with single lane.
S.S.D. = 2 S.D.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Cross-hair in a surveying telescope are fitted in front of the eye piece.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. Closing error = √((ΣL)^2+ (ΣD)^2 )
= √((1.39)^2+ (–2.17)^2 )
= 2.577 m

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Minimum length of railway passenger platform = 138 m.

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. For broad gauge railway passenger platform should not be less than 305 m.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. Four methods are available for carrying out plane table survey
(ii) Intersection
(iii) Traversing
(iv) Resection.

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (09-09-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPPSC
Topic: Miscellaneous

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/3 mark
Time: 15 Minutes

Q1. The vertical stress at depth Z directly below the point P is proportional to
(a) 1/z
(b) 1/z^2
(c) 1/z^3
(d) Z

Q2. The depth of tension crack in a soft clay is –
(a) 4c/r
(b) 2c/r
(c) C/2r
(d) C/rω

Q3. MPN index is a measure of
(a) 〖BOD〗_5
(b) Hardness
(c) Coliform bacteria
(d) Dissolved oxygen.

Q4. The difference between free water level in two wells is 4m and they are situated at 150 m apart an inert tracer takes 16 hrs to move from one well to other. If the porosity of aquifer is 30m. what is the coefficient of permeability of aquifer.
(a) 2.93 cm/sec
(b) 2 cm/sec
(c) 4 cm/sec
(d) 0.9 cm/sec

Q5. A waste water sample is diluted 50 times with fresh water the initial dissolve oxygen and after 5 days of incubation at 20 was found 17 mg/l and 7 mg/l the BOD of waste water sample is?
(a) 500 mg/l
(b) 1000 mg/l
(c) 100 mg/l
(d) 250 mg/l

Q6. The correct relationship between delta (∆) in cm, duty(D) in hectare per Cumec and base period (B) in days. Is
(a) ∆ =8.64 B/D
(b) ∆ =8.64 D/B
(c) ∆ =864 B/D
(d) ∆ =864 D/B

Q7. The super elevation needed for a vehicle travelling at a speed of 100 kmph on a horizontal curve of radios 250 m. on a road surface having coefficient of lateral friction of 0.15 is?
(a) 0.07
(b) 0.16
(c) 0.34
(d) 0.20

Q8. The penetration test for bitumen is conducted at a temperature of
(a) 100 °C
(b) 25°C
(c) 60 °c
(d) 40°c

Q9. A solid circular shaft having diameter of 100 mm is made up of a material which can withstand maximum shear stress of 110 MPa. The maximum torque (in kN) that the shaft can resist is
(a) 19.75
(b) 22.95
(c) 21.58
(d) 24.75

Q10. The BOD removal efficiency (in percentage) during primary treatment under normal condition is about
(a) 65%
(b) 85%
(c) 30%
(d) zero

Solutions

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. As per Boussinesq
σ_Z=3/2 [1/(1+(r/Z)^2 )]^(5/2) P/Z^2
▭(σ_Z α 1/Z^2 )

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Active earth pressure in cohesive soil-
Pa =K_a rz-2C√(K_a )
Z=Zc=depth of tension crack
▭(P_a=0)
0=K_a rZ_C-2C√(K_a )
▭(Z_C=2C/√(K_a ))
for cohessive soil (ϕ=0) (K_a=1)
▭(Z_C=2C/r)

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. MPN (most probable number)
It is a measure of coliform bacteria. Membrane filter technique & coliform index test also used in MPN test.

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. Seepage velocity (V_S )=(discharge velocity (V))/(Porosity (n) )
Distance/Time=V/n
150/16=V/0.30
▭(V=2.8125 m\/hr)
V=K.i
2.8125=K×(∆h/L)
2.8125=K×4/150
K=105.46 m\/hr
▭(K=2.93 cm\/sec)

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. BOD = (DO_i-DO_f )×Dilution factor
=(17-7)×50
=500 mg\/l

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. ∆ =8.64 B/D (m)
∆ =864 B/D (cm)

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. e+f=V^2/127R
e+0.15=(100)^2/(127×250)
▭(e=0.165)

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. The penetration test for bitumen is conducted at 25°C

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. τ_max=16T/(πD^3 )
T=(πD^3)/16 τ_max
=(π (100)^3)/16×110
=21.5875 .kN-m.

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. In the primary treatment BOD removal efficiency = 30 – 35%
Suspended solid removal efficiency = 60 – 7-%

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (04-09-2020)

Quiz: CIVIL ENGINEERING
Exam: TELANGANA-PSCM
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: No negative marking
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. When the liquid limit of a soil is less than the plastic limit, then the plasticity index is reported as
(a) Negative
(b) Zero
(c) 1
(d) Non-plastic (NP)

Q2. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick sand condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.8m, specific gravity 2.65 and void ratio 0.65 is equal to:
(a) 1.0 meter
(b) 1.2 meter
(c) 1.6 meter
(d) 1.8 meter

Q3. In a soil deposit of two layers of equal thickness, the permeability first and second layers are in ratio 1 : 2. The ratio of average permeability of horizontal direction to the vertical direction will be:
(a) 9/8
(b) 8/9
(c) 12/8
(d) 8/12

Q4. For routine consolidation test in laboratory, the thickness of the specimen is
(a) 10 mm
(b) 20 mm
(c) 40 mm
(d) 60 mm

Q5. The consolidation time for soils
(a) Increases with increasing compressibility
(b) Decreases with increasing permeability
(c) Is independent of the stress change
(d) All of the above

Q6. The assumption that the plane sections normal before bending remains normal after bending is used_______:
(a) only in the working stress method of design
(b) only in the limit-state method of design
(c) in both working stress and limit state methods of design
(d) only in the ultimate load methods of design

Q7. For concrete of grade M-50, short-term modulus of elasticity will be nearly
(a) 20000 N/mm²
(b) 35000 N/mm²
(c) 50000 N/ mm²
(d) 75000 N/mm²

Q8. The stress in punching shear is checked _________ in an isolated reinforced column footing of effective depth ‘d’.
(a) at the centre of the column
(b) at a distance d/2 away from the face of the column
(c) at a distance d/2 away from the centre of the column
(d) at the face of the column

Q9. As per IS 456, the minimum nominal cover specified for footings is:
(a) 25 mm
(b) 40 mm
(c) 50 mm
(d) 75 mm

Q10. The reduction coefficient of a reinforced concrete column with an effective length of 4.5 m and size 250×300 mm² us _______:
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.85
(c) 0.9
(d) 0.95

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Plasticity index (I.P.) = Liquid limit – Plastic limit
▭(I.P.=W_L-W_P )
→ When W_L is less then W_p then plastic index equal to zero.
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. thickness (t) = 1.8 m
G = 2.65
Void ratio (e) = 0.65
For quick sand condition –
Critical hydraulic gradient (i_c ) = (G-1)/(1+e)
(G-1)/(1+e)=∆h/t
(2.65-1)/(1+0.65)=∆h/1.8
1.65/1.65=∆h/1.8
▭(∆h=1.8 meter)

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. H_1=H_2=H
K_1/K_2 =1/2
K_1=K
K_2=2K
Average permeability in horizontal direction =
K_avg=(Σk_i H_i)/(ΣH_i )
K_avg=(k×H+2k×H)/(H+H)
=3KH/2H
=3/2 K
Average permeability in vertical direction
k_(avg_2 )=(ΣH_i)/((ΣH_i)/k_i )
=(H+H)/(H/K+H/2K)
=2H/(3H/2K)
=4/3 K
k_(avg_1 )/k_(avg_2 ) =(3⁄2 k)/(4⁄3 k)=9/8
S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. the thickness of the specimen should be as small as possible to reduce side friction. But a minimum thickness of 20 mm is usually required.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. T_v=C_v t/d^2 ————– (1)
▭(C_v=K/(m_v r_ω )) put in (1)
T_v=(K/m_v r_ω ) (t/d^2 ) ———— (2)
▭(m_v=a_v/(1+e_o )) Put in (2)
▭(T_v=(K(1+e_o )/(a_V (r_ω ) )) (t/d^2 ) )
▭(t α a_v )
▭(t α 1/K)

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. plane section normal before bending remains normal after bending is valid for working stress method & Limit state method.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. short term modulus of elasticity (E_c)
E_c=5000 √fck
for M50
▭(fck=50)
E_c=5000 √50
E_c 35355.33 N\/mm^2
Most expected option is (b)
S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. → punching shear checked at a distance d/2 away from the face of the column.
→ In one way shear checked at ‘d’ distance from face of the column.
S9. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Component Nominal cover
SLAB 20 mm
BEAM 25 mm
COLUMN 40 mm
FOOTING 50 mm
S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. reduction coefficient (Cr) = 1.25 – l_eff/(48.b)
Cr=1.25-4500/(48×250)
▭(Cr=0.875≈0.9)

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (01-09-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: SSC-JE
Topic: Hydraulics & Fluid Mechanics

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Mixing of milk with water is due to
(a) very good cohesion
(c) very good surface tension
(d) very good vapour pressure

Q2. If angle of contact of a drop of liquid is acute then
(a) adhesion is more than cohesion
(b) cohesion is more than adhesion
(c) cohesion is equal to adhesion
(d) adhesion and cohesion have no bearing with angle of contact

Q3. The center of pressure of a surface subject to fluid pressure is the point
(a) on the surface at which resultant pressure acts
(b) on the surface at which gravitational force acts
(c) at which all hydraulic forces meet
(d) similar to metacenter

Q4. If a Mohr’s circle is drawn for a fluid element inside a fluid body at rest, it would be
(a) a circle touching the origin
(b) a circle not touching the origin
(c) a point on the shear stress axis
(d) a point on the normal stress axis

Q5. The position of centre of pressure on a plane surface immersed vertically in a static mass of fluid is
(a) at the centre of pressure on a plane surface immersed vertically in a static mass of fluid is
(b) always above the centroid of the area
(c) always below the centroid of the area
(d) none of the above

Q6. The horizontal component of force on a curved surface is equal to the
(a) product of pressure intensity at its centroid and area
(b) force on a vertical projection of the curved surface
(c) weight of liquid vertically above the curved surface
(d) force on the horizontal projection of the curved surface

Q7. A circular plate of diameter d is submerged in water vertically, so that the topmost point is just at the water surface. The centre of pressure on the plate will be below the water surface at a depth of
(a) 5d/8
(b) 2d/3
(c) 11d/16
(d) 3d/4

Q8. The vertical distance of the centre of pressure below the centroid of the inclined plane area is
(a) I_c/(Ay_c )
(b) (I_c sin^2⁡θ)/(Ah_c )
(c) (I_c Sin^2 θ)/(Ay_c )
(d) (I_c sinθ)/(Ay_c )

Q9. The Centre of gravity of the volume of liquid displaced is called
(a) Centre of pressure
(b) centre of buoyancy
(c) metacentre
(d) none of these

Q10. When a block of ice floating on water in a container melts, the level of water in the container
(a) rises
(b) first falls and then rises
(c) remains the same
(d) falls

Solutions

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Mixing of milk with water is very good adhesion.

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. When adhesion force is more than cohesion force then fluid will wet the surface and angle of contact between fluid and surface will be acute.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Centre of Pressure is defined as the point of application of the total pressure on the surface.

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. If a Mohr’s Circle drawn for a fluid element inside a fluid body at rest, it would be a point on the normal stress axis.

S5. Ans.(c)

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. The horizontal component of force on a curved surface is equal to the force on a vertical projection of the curved surface.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. h_p = h_c+I_gg/(Ah_c )
= d/2+(π/64 d^4)/(π/4 d^2 × d/2)
= d/2+d/8
= 5d/8

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. Vertical distance of the centre of pressure below the centroid of the inclined plane area
= (I_gxx sin^2⁡θ)/(h ̅A)

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. The centre of gravity of the volume of liquid displaced is called centre of buoyancy.

S10. Ans.(c)

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (22-08-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: SSC-JE
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The total mass of a 1.2 cum volume of soil is 2.4 MT. if this soil is at a moisture content of 25%, then the dry density (kg/cum) of this soil will be:
(a) 1200
(b) 1920
(c) 1600
(d) 1560

Q2. If a soil sample of weight 0.18 kg having a volume of 0.0001 m³ and dry unit weight of 1600 kg/m³ is mixed with 0.02 kg of water then the water content in the sample will be
(a) 30%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%

Q3. If the undisturbed strength of a soil sample is 50 units while the remolded strength is 20 units, then what is the sensitivity of this soil?
(a) 1.25
(b) 0.4
(c) 2.5
(d) 2

Q4. Clay whose activity coefficient is more than 1.2 is termed as______.
(a) fine clay
(b) inactive clay
(c) active clay
(d) normal clay

Q5. Direct method of contouring is-
(a) A quick method
(b) Adopted for large surveys only
(c) Most accurate method
(d) Suitable for hilly terrains

Q6. Critical flow is created at a section of a rectangular channel 2.5 m wide. If the discharge is 2 m³/s what would be the critical flow depth?
(a) 0.62 m.
(b) 0.54 m.
(c) 0.48 m.
(d) 0.40 m.

Q7. A laser – doppler anemometer is a device to measure
(a) shear stress at a boundary
(b) surface tension of a fluid
(c) the turbulent velocity fluctuation in a flow
(d) drag force on an aerofoil

Q8. 8 m³/s discharge flows through 4 wide rectangular channel at a velocity of 2 m/s. The hydraulic mean radius of the channel is:
(a) 3/2m
(b) 2/3m
(c) 1m
(d) 4m

Q9. If the Euler load for a column is 1000 kN and crushing load is 1200 kN, then the Rankine load will approximately be:
(a) 1200
(b) 600
(c) 900
(d) 545

Q10. When both ends of a column are fixed, the crippling load is F. if one end of the column is made free, the value of crippling load will be changed to………..
(a) F/4
(b) F/2
(c) f/16
(d) 4F

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. Mass of soil = 2.4 MT = 2.4 ×10³ kg
Volume of soil = 1.2 m³
Density of soil = (2.4×10^3)/1.2=2×10^3 kg\/m^3
Moisture content = 25%
Dry density (r_d )=r_b/(1+w)
=(2×10^3)/(1+0.25)
=1600 kg\/m^3

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. weight of soil = 0.18 kg.
Volume of soil = 0.0001 m³
Dry unit weight = 1000 kg/m³
r_d=Weight/volume
1600=W/0.0001
weight of solid = 0.16 kg.
Weight of water = 0.18 – 0.16
= 0.02 kg.
Total weight of water = 0.02 + 0.02
= 0.04 kg.
Water content (w) = 0.04/0.16×100
▭(W=25%)

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Sensitivity=(undisturbed strength)/(remalded strength)
St=50/20
▭(St=2.5 )

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Activity Disruption
< 0.75
0.75 to 1.25
> 1.25 Non active
Normal soil
Active

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. direct method of contouring is the most accurate method. It’s suitable for large scale map’s when ground surface is regular.

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. In critical flow
Froud No. (fr) = 1
v/√gy = 1
Q/(A√gy) = 1
2/(2.5×y √gy) = 1
2/(2.5×y √(9.81×y)) = 1
2 = 2.5 × y × √(9.81×y)

y = 0.40 m

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. Turbulent velocity fluctuation in a flow is measured by lases doppler anemometer.

S8. Ans. (b)
Sol. discharge (Q) = 8 m³/sec
width (B) = 4
Velocity (V) = 2 m/sec
Hydraulic mean Radious (R) = ?

R = A/P

A → Area
P → Perimeter
Q = AV
8 = A × 2

A = 4

B × Y = 4
4 × y = 4

y = 1

Perimeter (P) = B + 2Y
= 4 + 2 × 1
= 6 m
R = 4/6

R = 2/3

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. Pe= 1000 KN
Pcr = 1200 KN
1/P=1/Pe+1/Pc
1/P=1/1000+1/1200
P= 545.45 KN

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol.

Le=L/2
F= (π^2 EI×4)/L² -(1)
(ii)

Le= 2L
Pcr = π²EI/4L² From equation(1)
Pcr = F/16

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (15-08-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: SSC-JE
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The design of eccentrically loaded steel column needs revision if
(a) (f_c^’)/f_c +(f_b^’)/f_b
(b) (f_c^’)/f_c -(f_b^’)/f_b <1
(c) (f_c^’)/f_c +(f_b^’)/f_b <1
(d) (f_c^’)/f_c +(f_b^’)/f_b >1

Q2. Maximum bending moment in roof purlins is taken as
(a) WL/10
(b) WL/20
(c) WL/40
(d) WL/50

Q3. Which of the following loads are to be considered in designing a gantry girder?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q4. In a plate girder, the shear force in the girder at any section is taken up by:
(a) the web only
(b) the flange only
(c) part of web and part of flange
(d) the whole section

Q5. A vertical plate of a plate girder is called
(a) Web plate
(b) Flange plate
(c) Cover plate
(d) None of these

Q6. In a soil specimen, 60% of soil passing through 4.75 mm IS sieve and 40% of particle are passing through 75 micron IS sieve. Its uniformity coefficient is 5 and coefficient of curvature is 4. As per IS classification, this soil is classified as:
(a) SP
(b) GP
(c) SW
(d) GW

Q7. A point in a compressible flow, where the velocity of fluid is zero, is called:
(a) critical point
(b) vena contracta
(c) stagnation point
(d) none of the above

Q8. A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and paths of individual particles do not cross each other, is called a:
(b) uniform flow
(c) stream line flow
(d) non-uniform flow

Q9. A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called:

Q10. The ratio of actual discharge of a jet of water to its theoretical discharge is known as
(a) Coefficient of discharge
(b) Coefficient of velocity
(c) Coefficient of contraction
(d) Coefficient of viscosity

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. The design of eccentrically loaded steel column needs revision if
▭((f_c^’)/f_c +(f_b^’)/f_b <1)

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. the maximum bending moment in roof purlins is taken as (‘WL^’)/10 or (‘wL^(2^’ ))/10
W= total load (KN) = wL
S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. the loads which are considered in designing of gantry girders –
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. in plate girder, the shear force in the girder at any section is taken up by part of web and part of flange. The main purpose of flange plate in plate girders is to resist the bending moment acting on the girder.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. A vertical plate of a plate girder is called web plate. The thickness and depth of web plate depends upon bending moment and shear stress acting on the plate.
S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. more than 50% of soil grains are retained over 75 micron sieve then its coarse grained soil.

→ if Cu > 4 than well graded gravel other
S7. Ans. (c)
Sol. In fluid dynamics a stagnation point in a flow field where local velocity of the fluid is zero.

S8. Ans. (c)
Sol.

S9. Ans. (b)
Sol. Flow through an expanding tube is non uniform but rate of flow is constant so steady flow.
S10. Ans. (a)

Sol. coefficient of discharge (c_d) = (Actual velocity )/(theortical velocity )

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (11-08-2020)

Quiz: CIVIL ENGINEERING
Exam: TELANGANA-PSCM
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: No negative marking
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The total water requirement of a city is generally assessed on the basis of
(a) maximum hourly demand
(b) maximum daily demand + fire demand
(c) average daily demand + fire demand
(d) greater of (a) and (b)

Q2. The population figures in a growing town are as follows:
Year Population
1970 40,000
1980 46,000
1990 53,000
2000 58,000
The predicted population in 2010 by Arithmetic Regression method is
(a) 62,000
(b) 63000
(c) 64000
(d) 65000

Q3. Which one of the following tests of water/wastewater employs Erichrome black T as an indicator?
(a) Hardness
(b) COD
(c) Residual chlorine
(d) DO

Q4. Bacteriological examination of drinking water for Escherischia Coliforms (E. Coli) is performed because
(a) they are pathogenic causing intestinal diseases
(b) their presence indicate viral contamination of water
(c) they are used as indicator organisms for probable presence of pathogens
(d) they represent unique indicator organisms for sewage pollution

Q5. Pathogens are usually removed by
(a) chemical precipitation
(b) sedimentation
(c) activated sludge process
(d) chlorination

Q6. The suitable layout for a water supply distribution system, for an irregularly grown town, is
(b) grid iron system
(c) ring system

Q7. In the design of two-way slab restrained at all edges, torsional reinforcement required is
(a) 0.75 times the area of steel provided at mid span in the same direction
(b) 0.375 time the area of steel provided at mid span in the same direction
(c) 0.375 time the area of steel provided in the shorter span
(d) nil

Q8. In case of simply supported beam, the clear distance between lateral restraints shall not exceed
(a) 60b or 250 b^2/d
(b) 60b or 〖100b〗^2/d
(c) 25b or 250 b^2/d
(d) 25b or 100 b^2/d

Q9. The total compressive force at the time of failure of a concrete beam section of width ‘b’ without considering the partial safety factor of the material is
(a) 0.36 f_ck b x_u
(b) 0.54 f_ck b x_u
(c) 0.66 f_ck b x_u
(d) 0.8 f_ck b x_u

Q10. The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a simply supported beam is to resist in that zone
(a) compressive stress
(b) shear stress
(c) bond stress
(d) tensile stress

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total draft taken sum of maximum daily demand and fire demand or the maximum hourly demand. Whichever is more

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. Design growth rate :
= (6000+7000+5000)/3
= 6000 per decode
→In 2010 population will be
P = 58000 + 6000 = 64000

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Hardness test of water we use Erichrome black-T as an indicator.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. E coli lives longer in water Pathogenic bacteria and hence their presence indicates presence or observe and Pathogenic bacteria.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Pathogens removed by chlorination.

S6. Ans.(a)

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. In two way slab design restrained at all edges torsional reinforcement is 0.75 time the area of steel provided at mid span in the same direction.

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. In simply supported beam the clear distance between lateral restraints not exceed 60b or 250 b^2/d.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total compressive force without considering the partial safety factor of material
= 0.36 f_ck×b×x_u×1.5
= 0.54 f_ck b x_u

S10. Ans.( c)
Sol. For resisting bond stress providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in simply supported beam.

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (08-08-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UPSSSC-JE
Topic: Building Construction Technology

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. The distemper is used to coat:
(a) External concrete surface
(b) interior surface not exposed to weather
(c) Woodwork
(d) Compound walls

Q2. The most commonly used base for timber painting is
(b) Zinc white
(d) Titanium white

Q3. The ingredient of paint which are used to hide the surface irregularities and imparts color is known as__________.
(b) Drier
(c) Pigments
(d) Solvents

Q4. The ultimate tensile strength of the structural mild steel is:
(a) 160 N/mm²
(b) 260 N/mm²
(c) 420 N/mm²
(d) 520 N/mm²

Q5. The small area on painted surface enclosed by hair line cracks are known as:
(a) Blistering
(b) Crazing
(c) Wrinkling
(d) Chalking

Q6. Bakelite is a/an
(a) insulator
(b) semiconductor
(c) high resistance conductor
(d) Low resistance conductor

Q7. For manufacturing colored glass, the coloring pigments are added in the glass at the stage of
(a) Raw material mixing
(b) Fusion
(c) Melting
(d) Finishing

Q8. Find the tensile stress of a mild steel rod of 18mm diameter. Given: ultimate load = 9.0 ton.
(a) 0.03 Ton/sq.mm
(b) 0.02 Ton/sq.mm
(c) 0.05 Ton/sq.mm
(d) 0.06 Ton/sq.mm

Q9. The ratio of the theoretical critical buckling load for a column with fixed ends to that of another column with the same dimension and material, but with pinned ends is equal to
(a) 0.5
(b) 4.0
(c) 2.0
(d) 1.0

Q10. Rankines Gorden formula used to find out buckling load of column
(a) Long column
(b) Medium column
(c) Short column
(d) None of these

Solutions

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Distemper is used to coat interior surface not exposed to weather. It is made with base as white chalk and thinner as water.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. White lead is used as base for timber painting.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Pigments is used to hide the surface irregularities and imparts desired color to paints.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Wrinkling → These are the hair line cracks on small area of painted surface.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Bakelite is a type of plastic which is used as non-conductive material.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Color pigment is added in the manufacturing of glass at the stage of fusion.
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Diameter = 18 mm
Tensile stress = (9.0 ton)/(π/4×18²)
= 0.035 ton/mm²

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. (i) Pcr=π²EI/Le²
Both end’s fixed
Le = L/2
Pcr_1=(π^2 EJ×4)/L² -(i)
(ii) both end’s pinned
Le= L
Pcr_2=π²EI/L² -(ii)
(Pcr_1)/(Pcr_2 )=((π^2 EI×4)/L^2 )/((π^2 EI)/L^2 )
= 4

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. → Rankines Gorden formula used to find out buckling load of medium column.
→ Euler formula used for calculating buckling load of long column.

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING ( 05-08-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: SSC-JE
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. For R. C. C. construction, the maximum size of coarse aggregate is limited to:
(a) 10 mm
(b) 15 mm
(c) 20 mm
(d) 25 mm

Q2. According to IS 456, the approximate estimated flexural strength (MPa) of concrete of grade M50 (fck = 50 MPa) would be:
(a) 4.9
(b) 5.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 6.5

Q3. The maximum depth of neutral axis for a beam with Fe 415 bars in limit state method of design is:
(a) 0.46 d
(b) 0.48 d
(c) 0.50 d
(d) 0.53 d

Q4. The process of mixing extra air with water and has a number of useful functions and helps in the improvement of chemical and physical characteristics of water is known as……….
(a) rapid sand filter
(b) aeration
(c) sprayer
(d) slow sand filter

Q5. The hardness that is equivalent to alkalinity is known as –
(a) total hardness
(b) carbonate hardness
(c) non carbonate hardness
(d) pseudo hardness

Q6. Reflux valves are also known as –
(a) Check valves
(b) Sluice valves
(c) Relief valves
(d) Scour valves

Q7. Biomedical waste is disposed of through.
(a) a landfill
(b) composing
(c) incineration
(d) a landfill and incineration

Q8. The minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS 456-2000 is
(a) M 30
(b) M 25
(c) M 20
(d) M 15

Q9. The initial setting time of fresh concrete should be
(a) Lower than 15 minutes
(b) Greater than 30 minutes
(c) Greater than 1 hours
(d) Not more than 10 hours

Q10. The grade of concrete M-15 means that compressive strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is ………….
(a) 100 kg/cm²
(b) 150 kg/cm²
(c) 200 kg/cm²
(d) 250 kg/cm²

SOLUTION
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. According to IS: 456-2000
Max^x size of aggregate≯1/4×thickness of member
For heavily reinforced structure.
Max^m size ≯clear cover-5 mm
Max^m size =20 mm
S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. Flexure strength (fc) = 0.7√fck
fc=0.7√50
▭(fc=4.949)

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Grade of steel Max^m depth of N.A. (x_ulim )

Fe-250 0.53d
Fe-415 0.48d
Fe-500 0.46d

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Aeration is the process of mixing extra air with water which helps in the improvement of chemical and physical characteristics of water.

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. the hardness that is equivalent to alkalinity is known as carbonate hardness. It is also termed as temporary hardness. carbonate hardness is also defined as the minimum of these two i.e. alkalinity and total hardness.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Reflux valves are also known as check valves or non-returning valves.
S7. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. As per IS 456-2000, The minimum grade of concrete used in Reinforced concrete is M20.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. The initial Setting time of fresh concrete should not be less 30min. and the final setting time is 10 hours.

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. The compressive strength of M15 grade of concrete is 150 kg /cm² or 15 N/mm² of 15 cm. cube at 28 days.

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (28-07-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering
Exam: UKSSSC-JE
Topic: MISCELLANEOUS

Each question carries 1 mark
Negative marking: 1/4 mark
Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. Hardness of the rock can be tested in situ using.
(a) Smith’s test
(b) Schmidt Hammer test
(c) Acid test
(d) Crystallization test

Q2. For stones, mohs scale is used to determine
(a) Toughness
(b) Hardness
(c) Flakiness index
(d) Durability

Q3. According to IS 456, the approximate estimated flexural strength (MPa) of concrete of grade M50 (fck = 50 MPa) would be:
(a) 4.9
(b) 5.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 6.5

Q4. The representative fraction of the scale 1 cm = 100 km will be :
(a) 1/10000
(b) 1/100
(c) 1/100000
(d) 1/10000000

Q5. The total unit weight of soil is 22 kN/m³. the specific gravity of soil particles is 2.67 and the water content of the soil is 10%. The dry unit weight would be
(a) 20 kN/m³
(b) 2 kN/m³
(c) 0.02 kN/m³
(d) 200 kN/m³

Q6. Relationship between dry density γ_d’ percentage air voids n_a’ water content w and specific gravity G of any soil is
(a) γ_d=((1+b_a )Gγ_w)/(1+wG)
(b) γ_d=((1+n_a )Gγ_w)/(1-wG)
(c) γ_d=((1-n_a )Gγ_w)/(1+wG)
(d) γ_d=((1-n_a )Gγ_w)/(1-wG)

Q7. In situ density of a soil deposit was determined by core cutter method. Weight of
empty core cutter is 1286 gm. Weight of core cutter filled with soil is 3196 gm and
volume of core cutter is 1000 cc. water content of soil is 12%, G=2.70. and g= 9.8
m/〖sec〗^2.
The bulk unit weight of soil is
(a) 19.10 kN/m³
(b) 18.72 kN/m³
(c) 17.83 kN/m³
(d) 21.20 kN/m³

Q8. In a soil specimen, 60% of soil passing through 4.75 mm IS sieve and 40% of particle are passing through 75 micron IS sieve. Its uniformity coefficient is 5 and coefficient of curvature is 4. As per IS classification, this soil is classified as:
(a) SP
(b) GP
(c) SW
(d) GW

Q9. If the permeability of a soil is 0.8 mm/sec, the type of soil is:
(a) Gravel
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) Clay

Q10. Lacings in the build up steel columns are designed to resist
(a) Bending Moment due to 2.5% of column load
(b) Shear Force due to 2.5% of column load
(c) Axial force due to 2.5% of column load
(d) Both (a) and (b)

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Hardness of the rock can be tested in situ using schmidt hammer test.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Mohs scale is used to determine hardness of stone.
Type of stone Harness on mohs scale
Calcite 3.5
Dolomite 3.5 to 4
Feldspar 6

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Flexure strength (fc) = 0.7√fck
fc=0.7√50
▭(fc=4.949)

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. 1 cm = 100 km.
1 cm = 100,000,00 cm
▭(R.F.1/100,000,00)

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. total unit weight = (r_b ) = 22 kN/m³
Specific gravity (G) = 2.67
Water content (w) = 10%
Dry unit weight (r_d )= ?
r_d=r_d/(1+w)=22/(1+0.1)
▭(r_d=20kN\/m^s )

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. r_d=((1-η_a )Gr_ω)/((1+e) )
r_d→ dry density
η_a → percentage air void
G → Specific gravity
e → void ratio
▭(Se=W.G)
▭(r_d=((1-η_a )Gr_ω)/(1+WG))

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Weight of empty core cutter = 1286 gm
Weight of core cutter filled with soil = 3196 gm.
Volume of curve cutter = 1000 c.c.
Water content (w) = 12%
G = 2.70
g = 9.8 m/sec²
Bulk unit weight (r_b ) = ?
Weight of soil = 3196-1286
= 1910
r_b=weight/Volume=(1910 gm)/(1000 cm^3 )
= 1.910 gm/cm³
=(1.910×9.81×100×100×100)/(1000×1000)
=18.74 kN\/m^3
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. more than 50% of soil grains are retained over 75 micron sieve then its coarse grained soil.

→ if Cu > 4 than well graded gravel other
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Soil Coefficient of permeability (Cm/sec)
Gravel
Sand
Silt
Clay > 1
1 – 10^(-3)
10^(-3)- 10^(-6)
< 10^(-6)

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. Lacing member do not transfer any load from the column but in design of lacing member it is assumed that shear force due to 2.5% of column load will transfer through the lacing member.

# QUIZ : CIVIL ENGINEERING (25-07-2020)

Quiz: Civil Engineering

Exam: Assam -Psc

Topic: SURVEYING

Each question carries 1 mark

Negative marking: No negative marking

Time: 10 Minutes

Q1. In surveyor’s compass, the graduated ring is attached to the:

(a) Box

(b) Needle

(c) Sigh vane

(d) Jewel bearing

Q2. The imaginary line passing through the intersection of cross hairs and the optical center of the objective is known as ……….

(a) Line of sight

(b) Line of collimation geoid

(c) Axis of the telescope

(d) None of these

Q3. The telescope of a Dumpy level …………..

(a) Is rigidly fixed to the leveling head

(b) Can be titled in a vertical plane

(c) Can be taken out of its supports and reversed

(d)Permits interchange of eye piece and object glass

Q4. Which of the following leveling is carried out to determine the elevation difference between two points on the surface of earth

(a) Reciprocal leveling

(b) Simple leveling

(c) Longitudinal leveling

(d) Differential leveling

Q5. The ‘fix’ of a plane table with three known points is good if the instrument station lies: –

(a) in the great triangle

(b) outside the greater triangle

(c) outside the great triangle but within the great circle

(d) on the circumference of the circumscribing circle

Q6. In plane table survey, the error due to cantering should not exceed the scale divided by………….

(a) 25

(b) 40

(c) 50

(d) 80

Q7. Contour interval for a building site normally

(a) 0.5 m

(b) 1.5 m

(c) 2.0 m

(d) 5.5 m

Q8. The method of tacheometry in which the interval on levelling staff is variable and stadia hair intercept is fixed, is known as

(a) Movable Hair Method

(b) Fixed Hair Method

(c) Tangential Hair Method

(d)Subtense Hair Method

Q9. In measuring horizontal angles, the theodolite should be turned.

(a) Clockwise from the forward station to the back station

(b) Clockwise from the back station to the forward station

(c) Anticlockwise from the forward station to the back station

(d) Anticlockwise from the back station to the forward station

Q10. If a transition curve is introduced between a straight and a curve such that a super elevation of 15 cm is introduced over a curve and if the rate of super elevation is 1 IN 500, then the length (m) of the transition curve will be

(a) 50.00

(b) 75.00

(c) 100.00

(d) 150.00

SOLUTION

S1. Ans.(a)

Sol. In surveyor compass the graduated ring fixed at the box & moves with the box while the magnetic needle remain’s stationary along the north south line.

S2. Ans.(b)

Sol. line of sight. The line passes through optical centre of objective & intersection of cross hair is called as line of sight.

Line of collimation – When line of sight become horizontal. It will be known as line of collimation

Axis of telescope –  This is an imaginary line joining point’s of optical centre of eyepiece to the optical centre of objective glass.

Axis of bubble tube – This is an imaginary line which is tangential on longitudinal curve of bubble tube.

S3. Ans.(a)

Sol. the telescope of a dumpy level is rigidly fixed to the leveling head.

S4. Ans.(d)

Sol. differential leveling required more than one setting of the instrument .

for determine elevation difference between two points differential leveling adopted.

S5. Ans.(a)

Sol. According to lehmans rule, the ‘fix’ of a plane table with three known points is good  if the instrument station lies in the great triangle & is bad if the plane table station lies on the circumference of the circumscribing circle.

S6. Ans.(b)

Sol. in plane table survey, the error due to centering should not exceed

S7. Ans.(a)

Sol.

S8. Ans.(b)

Sol. in the fixed hair method the distance between the stadia hair is fixed.

S9. Ans.(b)

Sol. while measuring horizontal angles. Theodolite should be turned clockwise from the back station to the forward station.

S10. Ans.(b)

Sol. super elevation (e) = 15 cm.

Rate of super elevation = 1 in 500

Length of transition curve = 500 ×0.15

= 75 metre.